[Polity] 100 Mock MCQ Questions from the Static portion, Constitution of India

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  1. Instructions
  2. Question 1 to 20
  3. Question 21 to 40
  4. Question 41 to 60
  5. Question 61 to 80
  6. Question 81 to 100
  7. Answers

Instructions

  • 100 questions worth 2 marks each = total 200 marks.
  • Penalty for wrong answer= Minus 0.67 (=1/3rd of the mark allotted to correct answer.)
  • time limit 2 hours
  • You might want to revise Laxmikanth first before attempting these 😉
  • If you want blank answersheet for MCQs, click me

Question 1 to 20

  1. In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?
  1. External Aggression.
  2. Internal Emergency.
  3. When Martial Law is in force.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.
  1. Right to Education.
  2. Right to Information.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Article 21 declares that –

No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”

The protection under article 21 is:

  1. Against arbitrary legislative action.
  2. Against arbitrary executive action.
  3. Both A & B.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
  1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in article 19 (1) of the constitution.
  2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI act.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t article 32.
  1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
  2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR.

Correct statement/s is/are:

  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None
  1. Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”
  1. Right to speedy trial.
  2. Right against delayed execution.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None
  1. Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?
  1. Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus.
  2. Certiorari & Mandamus.
  3. Prohibition & Mandamus.
  4. Prohibition & Certiorari.
  1. The directive principles were made non – justiciable and legally non – enforceable because:
  1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
  2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
  1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
  2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
  3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.
  1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
  2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment bill.
  1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment bill in parliament.
  2. President must give his assent to the bill if duly passed by both houses.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None
  1. The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:
  1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
  2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
  3. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
  4. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.
  1. Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution.
  1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
  2. Rigid Constitution.
  3. Independent Judiciary.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.
  1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
  2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.
  1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the center can give direction to a state on any matter.
  2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre & the states.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statements are correct.
  1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
  2. The state Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency.
  1. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority.
  2. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
  3. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
  4. None of these.
  1. Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose Presidents rule in a state (Article 356).
  1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority.
  2. Serious maladministration in the state.
  3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360).
  1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
  2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by simple majority.
  3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. The Electoral College for President’s election consist of:
  1. Elected members of both the houses of parliament.
  2. Elected members of the legislative assemblies.
  3. Elected members of all Union Territories.
  1. 1.
  2. 2 & 3.
  3. 1 & 2.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.

Question 21 to 40

  1. When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –
  1. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker.
  2. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
  3. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
  4. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.
  1. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill –
  1. The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
  2. The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
  3. The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
  4. The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.
  1. The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are –
  1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
  2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?
  1. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
  2. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
  3. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
  4. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
  1. The ‘Council of Ministers’ does not consist of:
  1. Deputy Ministers.
  2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
  3. Deputy Chairman – Planning Commission.
  1. 1, 2 & 3.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 3 only.
  4. None of these.
  1. The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:
  1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
  2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
  3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
  4. The system of proportional representation by List.
  1. 1 & 3.
  2. 1 & 4.
  3. 2 & 3.
  4. 2 & 4.
  1. Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a member of parliament:
  1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must be a member of a SC / ST in any state or Union Territory.
  2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry & sati.
  3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1, 2, & 3.
  4. None of these.
  1. Which of the following statements are correct.
  1. If a MLA is elected to be a MP, his seat in parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
  2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. The office of the ‘Whip’ is mentioned in:
  1. Constitution of India.
  2. Rules of the house.
  3. In a separate Parliamentary Statute.
  4. None.
  1. The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in:
  1. Constitution of India.
  2. Rules of the house.
  3. A separate Parliamentary Statute.
  4. None.
  1. When the Lok Sabha is Dissolved:
  1. A bill passed by Lok Sabha pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
  2. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha & not passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. A minister who is not a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six months, without being a member of either house of parliament):
  1. Can participate in the proceedings of Lok Sabha only.
  2. Can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha only.
  3. Can participate in the proceedings of either house of parliament.
  4. Cannot participate till he becomes a Member of either house of parliament.
  1. Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour:
  1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure.
  2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
  3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation.
  4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.

The correct statements is/are:

  1. 1 & 2 only.
  2. 3 & 4 only.
  3. 2 & 3 only.
  4. 1 & 4 only.
  1. Which of the following motion/s if passed leads to the defeat of the government:
  1. Censure Motion.
  2. Cut Motion.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by:
  1. Any court of law.
  2. Lok Sabha.
  3. President of India.
  1. 1 & 2 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 2 only.
  4. None of these.
  1. Which of the following condition may lead to the resignation of the government:
  1. Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister.
  2. Defeat of a money bill.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following is/are correct:
  1. A Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
  2. A Money bill is also a Financial Bill.
  3. All Financial bills can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1 & 2 only.
  3. 1, 2 & 3.
  4. None of these.
  1. Which of the following Expenditure is/are the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the Consolidated fund of India:
  1. Emoluments and allowances of President & Vice President.
  2. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court & high court.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following qualification/s is/are laid down by the constitution for a person to be appointed as the Governor of a state:
  1. He should be a citizen of India.
  2. Must have completed the age of 35 years.
  3. He shall not belong to the state where he is appointed.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1 & 2 only.
  3. 1, 2 & 3.
  4. None of the above.
  1. Which of the following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: “To preserve protect and defend the constitution”
  1. President.
  2. Governor.
  3. Chief Justice of India.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1 & 2 only.
  3. 1, 2 & 3.
  4. None of the above.

Question 41 to 60

  1. Which of the following situation will bring about the collapse of the council of ministers of a state.
  1. Resignation by Chief Minister.
  2. Death of Chief Minister.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statements are correct:
  1. President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LS.
  2. Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LA.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. When in a bicameral legislature, an ordinary bill, which has originated in the assembly is rejected by the council:
  1. Will be considered in a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.
  2. The assembly can override the council by passing the bill for the second time with or without any amendments.
  3. The council does not have power to reject any bill that has originated in the assembly and hence the bill is deemed to have passed.
  4. The bill ends and becomes dead.
  1. Chief Justice of High court is appointed by:
  1. The President after consultation with the CJI.
  2. The President after consultation with the CJI & Governor of state.
  3. The Governor on the recommendation of President who in turn consults the CJI.
  4. The President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior SC judges headed by CJI.
  1. Which of the following statements are correct:
  1. The High court cannot issue writs to any person outside its territorial jurisdiction.
  2. An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court directly against the decision of a tribunal.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Correct statements with regard to Panchayati Raj Institutions are:
  1. The people directly elect all members of Panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels.
  2. Governor can remove the State Election Commissioner on the recommendation of the State Legislature.
  3. The 73rd Amendment act of 1992 (PRI Act) is applicable to all states except J&K.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1 & 3 only.
  3. 1, 2 & 3.
  4. 2 & 3 only.
  1. Corrects statement/s with regard to UTs is/are:
  1. The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the UT except Delhi and Puducherry.
  2. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Corrects statement/s with regard to Election Commission is/are:
  1. The constitution debars the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
  2. The election commission is not concerned with the elections to state legislatures, for this the constitution provides for a separate state election commission.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with regard to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC):
  1. President can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned.
  2. JSPSC will be considered as a constitutional body with all the powers of a SPSC.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following are quasi judicial bodies:
  1. Finance Commission.
  2. Central Vigilance Commission
  3. National Human Rights Commission.
  4. Central Information Commission.
  5. Competition Commission of India.
  6. Union Public Service Commission.
  7. National Commission for SCs.
  1. All except 1, 2 & 6.
  2. All except 2, 4 & 6.
  3. All except 6.
  4. None of the above options are correct.
  1. Which of the following is/are not the functions of National Commission for SCs:
  1. To advise on the planning process of socio economic development of the SCs.
  2. To investigate all matters relating to OBCs.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following official/s is/are appointed by the President by Warrant under his hand and seal.
  1. CAG.
  2. Chairperson of National Commission of SCs.
  3. Attorney General of India.
  4. CVC
  1. 1, 2 & 4 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following funds/authorities/bodies can be audited by CAG:
  1. Consolidated funds of India, States & UTs having legislative assembly.
  2. Contingency funds of India.
  3. Public account of States.
  4. Receipts and expenditures of PPP.
  5. Local bodies.
  1. 1, 2 & 3 only.
  2. 1, 2 & 5 only.
  3. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
  4. All.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:
  1. He/she is the highest law officer of the country.
  2. He/she can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the SC.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:
  1. He/she can be a member of a Parliamentary committee.
  2. He/she is debarred from private legal practice.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which is the correct order for approval of 5 year plans:

A.    Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet  – Parliament .

B.     Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC – Parliament .

C.     Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet.

D.    Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC.

  1. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to NHRC.
  1. NHRC is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
  2. After their tenure Chairman & members are not eligible for further employment under the central or state government.
  3. Its recommendations are binding on the concerned government or authority.
  1. 1 & 2 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Members of selection committee for the selection of chairman of NHRC consists of:
  1. PM.
  2. Speaker.
  3. Deputy Chairman of RS.
  4. Leaders of the opposition in LS.
  5. Leaders in the opposition in RS.
  6. Chief Justice of India.
  7. Home minister.
  8. Minister of Social Justice & Welfare.
  1. All except 7.
  2. All except 7 & 8.
  3. All except 6 & 8.
  4. None of the above options are correct.
  1. Which of the following statements are correct:
  1. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner.
  2. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Justice of High Court.
  3. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC.
  1. 1 & 3 only.
  2. 1 & 2 only.
  3. 2 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following articles are correctly matched:
  1. Election Commission – Article 338.
  2. Finance Commission – Article 280.
  3. National Commission for SCs – Article. 324
  4. CAG – Article 148.
  5. Attorney General of India – Article 76.
  1. All except 1 & 5.
  2. All except 1 & 3.
  3. All except 2 & 5.
  4. None of the above options are correct.

Question 61 to 80

  1. The Jurisdiction of CAT extends to:
  1. Secretarial staff of Parliament.
  2. Civilian employees of Defense Services.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. My friend described a tribunal in the following manner: The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.

He/she is probably referring to:

  1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
  2. National Green Tribunal (NGT).
  3. He/she is either referring to CAT or to NGT.
  4. He/she is neither referring to CAT nor to NGT.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
  1. Right to Vote is not a FR but a Constitutional right.
  2. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the Right to Vote.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
  1. If somebody is convicted for some offence and he is sentenced to imprisonment for 3 years he cannot contest elections.
  2. A person cannot contest from more than two constituencies for a Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha election.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:
  1. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
  2. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state.
  3. The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code.
  4. Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language.
  1. 1, 2, 3 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. 2 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
  1. Which of the following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from GOI Act 1935:
  1. Office of the Governor.
  2. Emergency Provisions.
  3. Legislative Procedure.
  4. Bicameralism.
  5. Federation with a strong center.
  1. 1, 2 & 4 only.
  2. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
  3. 1 & 2 only.
  4. None of the above options are correct.
  1. Which of the following term/s was/were added by the 42nd Amendment act in our Preamble:
  1. Socialist.
  2. Secular.
  3. Republic.
  1. 1 & 2 only.
  2. 1 only.
  3. 2 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following statements are incorrect:
  1. The Preamble is a prohibition on the powers of the legislature.
  2. Preamble is not a part of the constitution.
  3. Preamble cannot be amended, as it is a part of the basic structure of the constitution.
  1. 1 & 2 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:
  1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned in article 368.
  2. Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following subject/s is/are enumerated in the concurrent list:
  1. Actionable wrongs.
  2. Education.
  3. Protection of wild Animals and Birds.
  1. 1 & 2 only.
  2. 2 & 3 only.
  3. 1 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3.
  1. Article 14 says that the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to article 14.
  1. Equality before the law is a negative concept whereas equal protection of law is a positive concept.
  2. The concept of equality before the law is of British origin whereas equal protection of law is of American origin.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statements is/are true:
  1. High court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.
  2. Territorial jurisdiction of SC for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a High Court.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following statement with regard to Directive Principles is/are correct:
  1. Courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and invalid.
  2. Courts can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a directive.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 2 only.
  3. Both.
  4. None.
  1. Which of the following schedules can be amended by simple majority of Parliament.
  1. Second Schedule.
  2. Fifth Schedule.
  3. Sixth Schedule
  4. Seventh Schedule.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1 & 4 only.
  3. 2 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3 only.
  1. In which of the following cases parliament can make laws in any matter enumerated in the state list.
  1. During National Emergency.
  2. During Presidents Rule.
  3. To Implement International Agreements.
  1. 1 only.
  2. 1 & 4 only.
  3. 2 & 3 only.
  4. 1, 2 & 3 only.
  1. Article 358 & 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental right. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.
  1. Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency and not in the case of Internal emergency.
  2. Article 359 operates in case of both External & Internal emergency.
  3. Article 358 suspends FR under article 19 for the entire duration of emergency.
  4. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas article 359 may extend to entire country or part of it.
  1. 1 & 2 only.
  2. 1, 2 & 3 only.
  3. 2, 3 & 4 only.
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4.
  1. Choose the correct statements from below:
    1. The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India Company.
    2. The Pitt’s India Act setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta.
    3. The Charter Act of 1833 first recognized the company’s territories in India as British possessions.
    4. Pitt’s India Act created the Board of Control to look after political affairs.
  1. Only a,b,c is correct.
  2. Only a,c,d is correct.
  3. Only a,d is correct.
  4. All are correct.
  1. Correct statement
    1. The Pitt’s India Act created Board of Control to manage political affairs.
    2. The Pitt’s India Act created the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong
  1. Choose the correct answer
    1. Charter Act of 1833 created the post Governor General of India.
    2. Charter Act, 1833 deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras their legislative powers.
    3. Charter Act, 1853 introduced open competitive system for recruitment of civil servants.
    4. Macaulay Committee on the Indian Police Service was formed in 1854 and it drafted the Indian Police Act,1861.
  1. Only a,b is correct.
  2. Only a,c is correct.
  3. Only a,b,c is correct.
  4. a,b,c,d is correct.
  1. The 15 member Council of India was setup under which act?
    1. Indian Councils Act,1861
    2. Indian Councils Act, 1892
    3. Government of India Act,1858.
    4. Indian Councils Act,1909

Question 81 to 100

  1. The first person to be inducted into the Viceroy’s Executive Council was:
    1. Dadabhai Naoroji
    2. Sachichidanand Sinha
    3. Satyendra Prasad Sinha
    4. Satyendranath Tagore
  1. Correct Statement?
    1. The Minto-Morley reforms were enacted through the Indian Councils Act,1919.
    2. Lord Morley was the Secretary of State and Lord Minto was the Viceroy.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong
  1. correct statement?
    1. The Council of India was formed through the Government of India Act,1858.
    2. The Council of India was abolished through the Government of India Act, 1935.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong
  1. Correct statement?
    1. The Interim Government members formed in 1946 were members of Viceroy’s Executive Council.
    2. The President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council was the Viceroy and Vice-President of the Council was Jawaharlal Nehru in the Interim Government.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong
  1. From which of the following areas, were members drawn to the Constituent Assembly, as members drawn from Chief Commissioner’s provinces?
    1. Delhi and British Baluchistan
    2. Ajmer-Merwara
    3. Coorg
    4. All of the above
  1. Correct statement?
    1. The Constituent Assembly was a sovereign body.
    2. The Constituent Assembly was a legislative body apart from constitution making body.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong
  1. Correct Statement?
    1. The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Sachichiadand Sinha when it met as a legislative body.
    2. The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Rajendra Prasad when it met as constitution making body.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong
  1. Correct Statement?
    1. The Universal  Adult Franchise is guaranteed under the constitution.
    2. The 61st amendment brought the age for voting to 18 years.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
  2. Correct Statement?
    1. The 73rd and 74th amendment brought in changes in the levels of government.
    2. From a 2-tier government, it changed it to a 4-tier government, bringing a new level with each amendment.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
  3. At the time of enactment of constitution, the provisions which enabled a secular state were:
    1. Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
    2. Fundamental Rights and DSP
    3. Fundamental Rights only
    4. Directive Principles of State policy only
  4. The feature of Indian constitution borrowed from South African constitution is:
    1. Procedure established by law
    2. Procedure for amendment of constitution and election of Rajya Sabha members
    3. Method of election of President
    4. Joint Sitting of the Parliament
  5. The words justice in the form of social, economic and political justice present in the Preamble has been taken from
    1. American Revolution
    2. French Revolution
    3. Russian Revolution
    4. None of the above
  6. The terms not introduced in the Preamble through the 42nd amendment are:
    1. Socialist
    2. Secular
    3. Integrity
    4. None of the above
  7. Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of the constitution
    1. Berubari Union case
    2. Kesavananda Bharati case
    3. Golaknath case
    4. Minerva Mills case
  8. Correct Statements?
    1. Originally the constitution had 14 languages in the 8th schedule.
    2. Currently there are 22 languages with the last amendment being the 92nd amendment.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
  9. Correct Statements?
    1. The Ninth Schedule was added to protect laws and legislations from judicial review.
    2. The Supreme Court held that laws added after April 24h,1973 can be reviewed.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
  10. Correct Statements?
    1. Article 2 of the constitution gives the right to the government to create new states into the Union of India which are not part of India already.
    2. Article 3 gives the power to the government to change the boundaries of the state within India.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
  1. Consider following statements
  1. Chattisgarh was formed by the Uttar Pradesh Reorganization Act.
  2. Himachal Pradesh was first UT to become a State
  3. Manipur was the first to become a UT

choice

  1. Only a and b correct.
  2. Only b and c correct.
  3. Only a and c correct
  4. all correct.
  1. Correct Statement
  1. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions for Anti-Defection.
  2. Originally the tenth schedule was formed related to Sikkim but was repealed later after Sikkim was made a state.
  3. Both are correct
  4. Both are wrong.
  1. Which of the following states joined India after a referendum of its people
    1. Junagarh
    2. Sikkim
    3. Both a & b
    4. None of the above.

Answers

Courtesy: These Question-answers were setup by Mr. Palas Nuwal (1-77), Mr. Shiva Ram (78-100).

  1. C
  2. A – RTI available to Indian citizens only.
  3. C
  4. A – SC is under the ambit of RTI.
  5. D – Only President can suspend this right during national emergency. HC can also issue writs for enforcement of FR.
  6. C
  7. B – Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
  8. C
  9. B – FR establishes political democracy.
  10. C – Minerva Mills case (1980) – For further explanation refer Laxmikanth 8.7
  11. B
  12. A – Second schedule – Simple majority only.
  13. D
  14. A – Legislative power rests with both whereas executive power rests with state.
  15. C
  16. C
  17. D – Resolution approving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by LS only with simple majority.
  18. A – Refer Bommai case (1994)
  19. B – Once approved by both the houses of parliament, the financial emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
  20. C – Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the UT Delhi & Puducherry only.
  21. C
  22. C
  23. B – An ordinance can alter or amend a tax law however it cannot be issued to amend the constitution.
  24. D
  25. D – Deputy Chairman of PC is given Cabinet rank.
  26. C – The representatives of each State and two Union territories are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members of the Electoral College for that Union Territory, as the case may be, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The Electoral College for the National Capital Territory of Delhi consists of the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi, and that for Puducherry consists of the elected members of the Puducherry Legislative Assembly.
  27. D – All these criteria are laid down in the Representation of People Act 1951 & Not in the constitution.
  28. C – See Laxmikanth – Page 22.6 – Double Membership.
  29. D
  30. C – Refer Laxmikanth – Page 22.13 – Under the head ‘Whip’.
  31. B
  32. C – Refer Laxmikanth – Page 22.15.
  33. D
  34. B
  35. D – Cannot be questioned by anybody.
  36. C
  37. B
  38. A – Note: There is no emolument for Vice President – As Chairman of RS, his salaries and allowances are charged on Consolidated Fund of India. Only the pensions of the Judges of High Court are charged on the consolidated fund of India.
  39. B
  40. B
  41. C
  42. A – Governor can nominate only one.
  43. B
  44. D
  45. A
  46. A – 2. The act does not apply to the states of J&K, Nagaland, Meghalaya, & Mizoram and certain other areas. 3. SEC can be removed on like manner as a judge of HC.
  47. D – 1. This power also extends to Puducherry & Delhi. 2. Lt. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly.
  48. D
  49. D – Parliament can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned. JSPC will be a statutory body and not constitutional.
  50. C
  51. D – It looks into all matters related to OBCs and Anglo Indian community too.
  52. A – Attorney General – Pleasure of President.
  53. D
  54. A
  55. A
  56. B
  57. B – It was created by the Protection of Human rights Act 1993, Statutory Body. Recommendations are not binding.
  58. C
  59. A – The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Secretary of State Government.
  60. B
  61. B
  62. C
  63. C
  64. C
  65. D
  66. C
  67. A
  68. D
  69. B
  70. D
  71. C
  72. C
  73. C
  74. D
  75. D
  76. D
  77. C) a,d is correct.
  78. A.
  79. C) a,b,c is correct.
  80. c) Government of India Act,1858.
  81. c) Satyendra Prasad Sinha
  82. B) b is only correct.
  83. C) Both are correct.
  84. Both are correct.
  85. d) All of the above.
  86. c) Both are correct.
  87. B) b is correct.
  88. C) Both are correct.
  89. A) a is correct
  90. b) Fr and DSP
  91. B
  92. c) Russian Revolution
  93. d) None of the above
  94. b) Kesavananda Bharathi case
  95. C) Both are correct
  96. C) Both are correct.
  97. C) Both are correct
  98. B only B and C correct.
  99. C) Both are correct.
  100. C) Both a & b.

Mrunal recommends

  1. (free) NCERT, NIOS, TN-Books
  2. Environment by ShankarIAS
  3. Indian Polity M.Laxmikanth (Hindi | English)
  4. Art & Culture by Nitin Singhania (Hindi | English)
  5. Spectrum: Modern History (Hindi | English)
  6. Bipin Chandra: Post Independence
  7. Fast-track to Arithmetic Rajesh Verma
  8. MK Pandey’s Analytical Reasoning
  9. Disha’s Topicwise Paperset (Hindi | English)
  10. School Atlas
  11. Mains: Language papers
  1. (free) NCERT, NIOS, TN-Books 4 History,Geo,Sci
  2. Indian Polity M.Laxmikanth (Hindi | English)
  3. Spectrum: Modern History (Hindi | English)
  4. Maths: Quantam CAT Sarvesh Kumar
  5. Objective General English SP Bakshi
  6. Word Power made Easy -Norman Lowe
  7. Topic wise Solved Paperset by Disha


So far 358 Comments posted

  1. raj

    answer of question 72 is incorrect.i think it should be none

    1. Nikhil

      territorial jurisdiction of SC in writ jurisdiction is larger than HC (go through laxmikanth carefully)

      article 226 provides for discretionary remedy , so HC can very well refuse to grant a relief under this article under some circumstances..

      so the answer given is right

  2. Amaranarayana

    Regarding Question No:90
    Answer can be :A
    Since in preamble we have LIBERTY of faith, belief and worship.(M Laxmikanth 3rd edition page no: 3.5)

  3. Gyan

    Right to information come under the article 21

  4. raj kedar

    sir, u gave wrong ans for que no 20

    1. Natasha Varghese

      C is the correct answer Kedar…only elected members of leg assemblies of delhi n pondy participate in electoral college for prez election….Subhash Kashyap “Our Parliament” pg 246 3rd para

  5. Nikhil

    a doubt in question 68
    I guess Preamble can be amended if done so under the limits of basic structure. plz correct me if I am wrong

    1. Tinkusrinivas

      That is the reason it is incorrect….whats wrong in that….:o

      1. Nikhil

        oops… sorry, I thought the given answer is a….. my bad 😀

    2. Ravi gupta

      Preamble only can be amend if Basic structure of constitution i.e supremacy of judiciary FR etc Remain unchanged
      42th amendment 1976

  6. PR

    I think the answer for 66th question is wrong……….. As, emergency provisions were taken from Weimar Germany. I think the answer should be D for 66 qn.

    1. Tinkusrinivas

      Emergency provisions are taken from goi 1935….but suspension of fundamental rights during emergency is taken from germany..( hitler effect…;)..remember like that…)

  7. shweta

    thanks mrunal!

  8. Bhanu

    Q 24- Not absolute majority!! Effective majority needed i.e 50% of all the then members

    1. Shivaji Deshmukh

      Refer Laxmikanth : Pg.: 19.2 Term of Office last third line

  9. aa

    3 is wrong by laxmicant

  10. QAISAR ALI

    I think answer of these should be like
    10) Ans B because Parliament can change FR through Amendment Act( Laxmikant 8.5)
    14) Ans C because both are right ( Laxmikant 14.4 & 14.2)

  11. Sita Ram

    What is the difference between ” President appointing CAG under his hand and seal” and just appointing National Commissioner for Linguistic Minorities(Normal Appointment or not under his hand and seal)?

  12. nidhi

    sir in qus 41 according to answer sheet option c is right but i think when a chief minister died ihe state council of minister chose an another person for CM rather then giving resignation plz clarify i am waiting for your answer

    1. divesh singla

      if a CM dies the his COM dissolves and its upon the discretion of governor to whom he wants to give chance to make their CM but the convention is that the CM is always appointed by the governor of majority party

  13. Infallibleankit

    Hi all I want to know which among these are the Constitutional Bodies { FINANCE COMMISSION, PLANNING COMMISSION, ELECTION COMMISSION,NATIONAL HUMAN RIGHTS COMISSION, CENTRAL VIGILANCE COMISSION, CBI,NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT COUNCIL}

    ALSO PLEASE TELL ME WHAT IS THE EXACT DEFINITION OF A “CONSTITUONAL BODY”?

    -ANKIT

    1. Sanjay kumar

      constitutional bodies-finance commission , election commission,
      remaining are statutory bodies
      statutory bodies- those which are established by acts of parliament

      1. safdar

        ndc and planning commission were/are nither constitutional nor statutory

    2. Shivaji Deshmukh

      Constitutional bodies are those which are mentioned in the Constitution and any change in them need an amendment.

  14. Sayed Iliyas

    Thanx a lot sir…

  15. Siddharth

    Sir I have some confusion regarding right to education and Right to information ( Q no 2 & 4 ). Please clarify this. Right to Information is mentioned under Art 21 and not Art 19(1). This was added by Maneka case under Art 21. Its given in Laxmikant. Also as Art 21 is available to both citizen as well as non citizen so this right to information should be available to both citizens and non citizens. Also both right to education as well as right to information are available to both citizens and non citizens. Please clarify these doubts of mine.

    1. sunny

      sir any act has its defined guidelines like as of RTI Act. As it is available to citizens only under art 19 but also available to non citizens in cases like arrest under criminal case so he has the right to info about the provision under which he or she is arrested. RTI Act and Right to information are in different concept same in meaning.

  16. Varun Kumar Dutta

    I don’t think D is the correct answer for question number 13..

    Correct answer should be A.

    India’s constitution is not rigid.

    1. Ankita

      Yup.
      It is both rigid and flexible.
      The golden middle path…

  17. reddy

    is governr eligible for pension???

  18. Ariharasudhan

    The 3rd question answer is a and not c

    Refer pg no 7.11(right hand side) in laksmikanth.

    1. Shivaji Deshmukh

      Option C is right . Menka Case 1978 page 7.13

  19. Rgn

    No its absolute majority only .refer lakshmi kanth 19.2

  20. vasnt

    question 39: governor should be a outsider on appointment .not belong to the same state of his own .

    1. Naveen

      Governor should be an outsider that is by convention, its not laid down by the Constitution..(Refer M Laxmikant Edition 3 Page number:24.4)

  21. Rahul puri

    In ques no.20 stmt 3 itself means Delhi and puducherry
    as elected members are there only in these two UT’s

  22. Rahul puri

    answer for ques number 25th should be ‘b’
    as Parliamentary Secretaries are not part of council of ministers.

    1. nidhi

      SORRY U R WRONG PARLIMENTRY SEC. ARE THE LAST CATEGORY OF COM see page 20.4 0f laxmikant

      1. Rahul puri

        thnks nidhi for correcting me

  23. Abhi

    regarding Q25 does providing cabinet rank means inclusion in council of ministers??
    I doubt, Please Clarify

    1. Dilip

      Nope. it doesn’t mean inclusion in COM

  24. Chintan

    history divided in three parts include from which year?
    i.e ancient,medieval and mordern history

  25. yogesh

    The council of ministers consists of 3 categories of ministers, namely,
    cabinet ministers,
    ministers of state,
    and
    Deputy Ministers.
    so, Deputy Chairman – Planning Commission enjoy the rank of a cabinet minister. Though he is not a menber of cabinet.
    It means answer of this q is 2 & 3. But option is there so correct option is D.

    1. Sushmitha

      Parliamentary secy is a part of the COM according to Laxmikanth. So how will 2&3 be not included in COM??

  26. Usha

    Thanks a lot sir..

  27. samir bhat

    What about Q72,
    Sir prhaps the option should be A. As the Writ jurisdiction of HC is wider than SC.

    1. shrawan rai

      yes writ jurisdiction of hc is wider i.e.can be issued not only for fundamental rights but territorial jurisdiction of sc in writ jurisdiction is wider i.e.writ jurisdiction of sc covers whole of india but in case of hc, it covers only within the state

  28. rahu

    q 16,ECI appointed by president n can b removed by impeachment.ans should be A

  29. APARAJITA

    36 th Question
    Which of the following condition may lead to the resignation of the government:
    Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister.
    Defeat of a money bill.
    1 only.
    2 only.
    Both.
    None.

    The Answer is given as both, but if NDA govt loses a ordinary bill in rajya sabha right now will it lead to resignation of the government ?

    Somebody please reply

    1. Shivaji Deshmukh

      Actually, in Laxmikanth pg. 22.22 it is no where mentioned about defeat of ordinary bill in R.S.
      But it is rightly mentioned, if an ordinary bill gets defeated in L.S. it will lead to resignation of goverment only and only if it is introduce by a “Minister”.

      So, as per my opinion only option 2 here is right. As, L.S. or R.S. isn’t mentioned in first option.

  30. Guarav

    -Proclamation of Emergency must approved by both the houses within One month.
    -Every resolution approving proclamation of emergency or its continuance must be passed by either house by a special majority.

    What is the difference between above two statements.

  31. SURYABHAN

    Isnt this pattern of paper much more complex…much doubts were created as though i had forgotten fundamental rights.made this paper with finding every exception you can from this laxmikanth…great effort

  32. Sushmitha

    Please somebody clarify about the council of ministers Q no. 25…Dy. ministers and parliamentary secretaries are part of COM. Only vice chairman of PC is not right so option c should be correct. Why D?

    1. Ankit Sharma

      Check Laxmikant 20.4. COM consists 3 type of ministers, namley, cabinet minister, minister of state and deputy minister. Hence, the ans is D

  33. divya d

    Great efforts… both questions and comments are valuable… Thankyou ji

  34. Pawan Kumar

    Thankuuuuuu…………

  35. Pulkit

    20 answer should be d

  36. Kartikeya Mishra

    “The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles” means Parliament can amend any Fundamental right to implement any directive principles .
    But only right described in Article -14,19 can be abridged to implement only clause b,c of Article 39 of directive principles.

  37. Swati Vikram

    3rd answer…?according to laxmikant ,its oly against arbitrary executive action…clear it

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