[Answerkey] CDS-2014: Polity, Constitution, Parliament related MCQs solved with explanation

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  1. Polity analysis
    1. [Table] Polity in CDS vs CAPF vs CSAT
    2. [Table] Polity: Internal Breakup
    3. Polity Difficulty level
    4. Polity Current Affairs
    5. Polity reference booklist for next CDS exam
  2. [MCQ] Terms related to Democracy/Pol.sci
  3. [MCQ] Constitution:  Origin & Amendment
  4. [MCQ] Preamble, Citizenship, FR/FD/DPSP
  5. [MCQ] The Union
    1. #U1: President related
    2. #U2: Parliament law making & motions
    3. #U3: Speaker & Dy.Speaker related
    4. #U4: Parliamentary Committees
  6. [MCQ] Bodies: CAG

Polity analysis

in the previous article, we solved the history portion. click me. Now time for polity.

Polity in CDS vs CAPF vs CSAT
Topic CDS1-2014 CDS2-2013 CDS1-2013 CAPF-2013 CSAT-2013
Polity 23 11 14 14 18
total MCQs 120 120 120 125 100
% 19% 9% 12% 11% 18%

For last two CDS exams, UPSC barely asked ~10% of the MCQs from polity. But this year nearly 20% or ~1/5th of the paper is from polity. This closely resembles the breakup of CSAT 2013.

[Table] Polity: Internal Breakup

Polity topic total %
terms 3 13%
origin and amendment 3 13%
FR-FD-Citizenship 3 13%
President 4 17%
parliament – law making & motions 3 13%
Parliament speaker-Dy speaker 2 9%
parliament Committee 4 17%
bodies-CAG 1 4%
Total 23 100%
  • Within polity, largest number of MCQs came from parliament (13+9+17)=~40%.
  • Nothing from statutory bodies, nothing from state government, nothing (directly) from Judiciary.

Polity Difficulty level

Debatable. Depends on person to person, depending on his preparation level.

  • IN CDS(II)-2013, only one MCQ outside M.Laxmikanth’s book, hence paper was very easy.
  • In CDS(I)-2014: 10 out 23 could be directly solved from M.Laxmikanth + NCERTs without much effort.
  • But the remaining 13 MCQs- information not given straightforward in the usual books. In some of these MCQs, you needed to take calculated risk or leave it altogether.
  • so, in that sense, polity section was quite tough compared to the usual standards of CDS exam.

Overall, I classify following as tough/trap MCQs:

  1. Parliamentary Committee on SC/ST: because the relevant info not given in Laxmi, Lucent, GS Manual or India Yearbook.
  2. Parliamentary Committee on Women: same problem as above
  3. Ambedkar’s speech: same as above
  4. Cooperative societies (Because most CDS aspirants don’t prepare current-polity that deep. They confine mostly to PIN/election type)
  5. judgment about Fundamental rights (trap MCQ- answer is not Golak Nath)
  6. President’s approval not necessary for… (trap MCQ)

For CSAT (IAS/IPS/IFoS) aspirant- there is a hidden message- prepare the details of parliamentary Committees from its official site: http://164.100.47.134/committee/

Polity Current Affairs

Only one MCQ from polity related current affairs (about SC’s judgment about cooperative societies). That news happened in October 2013, CDS exam taken in Feb 2014=> hints us that the span of current affairs = ~six months for CDS exam. (More will be revealed once we solve the PIN/award type MCQs later on.)

Polity reference booklist for next CDS exam

  1. Selective reading of NCERT civics and political science book. Because two MCQs had verbatim statements from NCERT of class 9 and 11.
  2. The “Base” material is still the same: Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth (Tata Macgrawill publication). Also available in Hindi under the title Bharat ki Rajyavyavastha (4th edition)flipkart
  3. (optional) Lucent GK Book for quick revision of polity related fact/data.
  4. Solve polity MCQs from GS Manual.
  5. waste of time:: DD Basu, Subhash Kashyap, MV Paylee etc= overkill for this CDS exam, given the Cost : benefit. Hence Not recommended. Better invest that much time in history, science, geography maths and English grammar.

Anyways, let’s start solving the History MCQs.  (Remaining subjects- geography, science, IR and Current  in separate articles soon). Any correction, mention in the comments- but avoid Wikipedia as reference source.

[MCQ] Terms related to Democracy/Pol.sci

Three MCQs from this area.

Q1. Political theory

  1. deals with the ideas and Principles that shape Constitutions
  2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice
  3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law, separation of power and judicial review

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Page 6 of Political Theory Class 11th NCERT. all three statements are given verbatim in the first paragraph. =>answer is (D) all correct.

Q2. Consider the following statements about Democracy :

  1. It consists with the formation of government elected by the people.
  2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
  3. Each vote has one value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

All three statements are given verbatim in NCERT Class 9 civics, Ch2 page 28 and 30=> answer (B) all correct.

Q3. What do you understand by the term `propaganda’?

  1. It is an unverified story that is spread from one person to another.
  2. It is communication tailored to influence opinion.
  3. It is an enthusiasm among a relatively large number of people for a particular innovation.
  4. It is a tool of oration used only by political parties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

As per Merriam Webster Dictionary, Rumour = information or a story that is passed from person to person but has not been proven to be true. =>Statement #1 is wrong. Propaganda is not the same thing as rumour. Eliminate options accordingly

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

now it boils down to whether #4 is right or not.

As per Merriam Webster Dictionary,

Prior to the 20th century, pictures and the written media were the principal instruments of propaganda; radio, television, motion pictures, and the Internet later joined their ranks.

Meaning propaganda doesn’t involve “ONLY” oration by political parties. Propaganda involves above movies, internet et. as well. Hence #4 is wrong=>C also wrong.

Thus we are left with answer (A) 2 only. And #2 is right, as per the definition given by Merriam: Propaganda= Manipulation of information to influence public opinion.

[MCQ] Constitution:  Origin & Amendment

Q1.Match List –I and List –II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List –I(Person) List II
A.Rajendra Prasad 1.Member,Drafting Committee
B.T.T. Krishnamachari 2.Chairman,Constituent Assembly
C. H.C. Mookherjee 3.Chaiman,Drafting Committee
D. B.R. Ambedkar 4.Vice-Chairman,Constituent Assembly

Code:

A B C D
a 2 1 4 3
b 2 4 1 3
c 3 4 1 2
d 3 1 4 2

Correct pair is following (M.Laxmikanth page 2.2, 2.4 and 2.5)

  • A2: Rajendra Prasad = chairman of Constituent assembly
  • B1: TT Kishnamachair = member of drafting Committee (he replaced DP Khaitan who died in 1948)
  • C4: HC Mookherjee =VC of Constituent assembly
  • D3: Dr.Ambedkar= Drafting Committee

Accordingly, the answer is (A)

Q2. “The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the ‘-government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any ,particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy.”

The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to

  1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  3. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
  4. Acharya J. B. Kriplani

This statement was made by Dr.BR Ambedkar. Ref: Uniform Civil Code by M. S. Ratnaparkhi Page 90.

Q3.There are provisions in the constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include

  1. any law under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States)
  2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new States)
  3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule

Select the answer.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1,2,3
  4. None

M.Laxmikanth Page 5.2.

The constitution art4 itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Art2) and formation of new states and alternation of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (Art3) are not to be considered as amendments of the constitution under Art.368. Hence #1 and #2 are definitely correct=> option B and D eliminated.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1,2,3
  4. None

now everything boils down to whether #3 is right or wrong?

According to Article4(2), any law made to amend the 1st or 4th schedule, will not be considered an amendment of the Constitution. => Hence 3 also right.

Therefore, final answer C: 1, 2 and 3.

[MCQ] Preamble, Citizenship, FR/FD/DPSP

three MCQs from this segment:

Q1. The Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India, “are inherent and cannot be extinguished by any constitutional and statutory provision”. This was made clear in the case of

  1. K. Gopalan v. State of – Madras
  2. I C Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
  3. State of West Bengal V. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal
  4. Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India

This is trap question. Many candidates may get tempted to tick Golak Nath BUT in reality- the given verdict statement belongs State of West Bengal V. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal.

Ref:

  1. Thehindu dated 18-2-2010
  2. Judgement uploaded on Indiakanoon.org

Hence answer C.

Q2.The citizenship means

  1. full civil and political rights of the citizens
  2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People(of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every State
  3. The right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Observe the second statement

The right of suffrage for election to the House of the People(of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every State.

The word “Every” makes this statement wrong. Because the resident citizen of Gujarat cannot v ote in the state legislative assembly election of MP or Rajasthan. Hence statement #2 is wrong, remove the choices accordingly, we are left with answer (B) only 1 and 3.

Q.3. Consider the following statements :

  1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental Right in India.
  2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

As per TheHindu 12 October 2013 about Supreme court judgement.

  1. Forming cooperative society = fundamental right.
  2. Cooperatives don’t fall under RTI.

Therefore, answer (C) both 1 and 2 correct.

[MCQ] The Union

Majority of the MCQs from this area- especially parliament related:

#U1: President related

Q1. Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommenda­tion is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required?

  1. For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters
  2. For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new States or of alteration of areas of existing States
  3. For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax
  4. For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which States are interested

Trap Question – many candidates would want to tick (D) but, As per Article 117, President’s recommendation not necessary to move an amendment making provisions for reduction or abolition of any tax. Hence Answer C

Q2.After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or ­withhold his assent. The President may

  1. assent within six months
  2. assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible
  3. return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill
  4. withhold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses

The wording of the question is confusing. But in reality, he has merely lifted half the passage from Article 111 and required you to finish the statement. We can go by elimination method, using page 17.9 of M.Laxmikanth

  1. assent within six months
not necessary “6 months”. He can do pocket veto for indefinite time.
  1. assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible
not necessary “as soon as possible”- he can use pocket veto. Besides, in case of Constitutional amendment / money bill he cannot reject.
  1. return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill
since A, B and D are wrong. we are left with answer C.
  1. withhold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses
cannot do so, as per the provisions of Art 111

Answer C

Q3. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the

  1. Speaker may direct
  2. President of India may direct
  3. Parliament may decide
  4. Finance Minister may decide

As per Loksabha rule 204(1) The Annual Financial Statement or the Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the President may direct. Hence B is the answer.

Q4. Which of the following statements in the context of structure of the Parliament is/are correct?

  1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.
  2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

M.Laxmikanth Page 22.1 =Statement #1 is right.

M.Laxmikanth Page 17.1= Statement #2 is wrong because President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

  1. elected member of parliament
  2. elected member of SLA
  3. elected member of Delhi + Puducherry.

Therefore final answer A” only 1 correct.

#U2: Parliament law making & motions

Q1. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws

  1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List
  2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable
  3. for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3
on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List Correct under Residuary legislative powers, Page 14.2 M.Laxmikanth
in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable Correct, page 14.3 M.Laxmikanth
for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List Correct, Page 14.3 M.Laxmikanth

Hence answer (D)

Q2. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India?

  1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses.
  2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.
  3. It is being notified by the President.
  4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 and 4

Statement #1 is right (M.Laxmikanth Page 22.21)=> option C and D eliminated because they donot contain #1.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 and 4

observe that both option A and B contain 1 and 2. So, ultimate answer depends on whether #3 is right or not.

As per M.Laxmikanth Page 22.21

“After the President notifies his intention to summon a joint sitting of the two houses, none of the houses can proceed further with the bill.”

Meaning #3 is right=> Final answer is B. 1, 2 and 3 correct.

By the way, Statement #4 is wrong because

M.Laxmikanth page 22.21

Since 1950, the provision regarding joint sitting , has been involveked only thrice (Dowry, Banking, Terrorism). => Meaning, it is not “frequently” resorted=> #4 is wrong=>Option D eliminated.

Q3. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’ under parliamentary democracy implies that

  1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister
  2. No person shall be nominated to the Cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister
  3. No person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Statement #1 wrong:

As per M.Laxmikanth page 22.15, No confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only. (while censure motion can be moved against either individual minister or the whole council). This eliminates #A. because Statement 1 is wrong.

Statement #2 and #3 are right. As per M.Laxmikanth page 20.3, speech by Dr.Ambedkar

“Collective responsibility can be achieved only through the instrumentality of the Prime Minister. Therefore, unless and until we create that office and endow that office with statutory authority to nominate and dismiss ministers, there can be no collective responsibility.”

Hence answer (D)

Q4. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament

  1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government
  2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in Accordance with the Constitution

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

M.Laxmikanth page 22.15 indirectly hints that above statements are correct. But to be sure, we should check official page of Lok Sabha:

  • Adjournment motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government=> #1 is right
  • Adjournment motion “must” precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law.=>#2 is wrong because it says “may involve”.

therefore, answer A: only 1.

#U3: Speaker & Dy.Speaker related

Q1. Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognizing a parliamentary party or group?

  1. An association of members who have an organization both inside and outside the House
  2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House
  3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Parliament of India: The ninth Lok Sabha, 1989-1991 by L M SINGHVI, Page 28

In recognising of parliamentary party or group, the Speaker shall take into consideration the following principles.

  1. they shall have an organisation both inside and outside the house
  2. they shall at least a spent equal to the poor is to constitute a sitting of the house that is 1/10 of the total number of members of the house
  3. They shall have announced at the time of general election, a distinct ideology and program of a parliamentary work on which they have been returned to the house

so, accordingly all three statements are correct, hence answer (A)

Q2. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is/are correct?

  1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in 1950.
  2. He/She is elected from amongst the members.
  3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3 only

As per Parliament’s handbook ch.8 (parliamentary functionaries)

Office  of  the  Deputy  Speaker  has  grown  in  importance  and  has  come  to acquire a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution in 1950.=>#1 is right. This eliminates D

M.Laxmikanth page 22.8 Dy Speaker is elected  by Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members=>#2 is right.  This eliminates #A.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3 only

Now it boils down to whether #3 is right or wrong.

He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House.

RIGHT BECAUSE WRONG BECAUSE
clearly given in M.Laxmikanth Page 22.8
but the given statement doesn’t say “only”. Therefore, such caveats/nitpicking are donot make the statement wrong. he can also stop holding the “office” by

  • resigning
  • When a resolution passed by majority of the Lok Sabha members….
final answer C final answer B

Ultimate judge : UPSC’s official answer key.

#U4: Parliamentary Committees

Q1. The functions of the Committee on Estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to

  1. report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected
  2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration
  3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the

estimates

  1. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 3 and 4

M.Laxmikanth Page 22.31 => Committee on public undertaking – examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings. => Statement #4 is definitely wrong. That eliminates (D). And from the same page of M.Laxmikanth, Functions of Estimate committee=> statemen no. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, answer (C).

Q2.The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for

  1. The examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India
  2. scrutinizing report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Statement #1 and #2 are correct, as per Page 22.30 of M.Laxmikanth. Statement #3 is the function of Estimate committee (page 22.31)=> hence #3 is wrong. Therefore, answer (C) only 1 and 2.

Q3. The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the Welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and  the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall

  1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control
  2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

M.Laxmikanth Page 22.32 and 22.33 gave brief overview. But it is silent on whether above statements are right or wrong. India Yearbook ch3 page 37 also talks about this Committee but silent on the given statement.

But As per the: official website of parliament both statements are correct. Hence answer C.

Q4. Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct?

  1. The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only
  2. A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committee
  3. The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years
  4. It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women

M.Laxmikanth page 22.33 talks about this Committee. It consists of 20 Loksabha + 10 Rajya Sabha members=> A is wrong. But the book is silent on the other three statements. Same problem with India Yearbook ch3 page 37- it also talks about this Committee but silent on the given statement. We have to check the official page of parliament

  • Minister cannot be its member=>B is wrong
  • Term = 1 year =>C is wrong
  • Therefore we are automatically left with answer (D).

[MCQ] Bodies: CAG

Q1. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct?

  1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the President.
  2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement #1 debatable because

STATEMENT #1 IS RIGHT STATEMENT 1 IS WRONG
Parliamentary Control and Government Accountability in South Asia: by Taiabur Rahman, Page 156: “Unlike Britain and some other leading Commonwealth countries, he is not an independent officer of the Parliament.“World of Bribery and Corruption: By Nau Nihal Singh, Page 363: “The CAG of India is not formally an officer of the Parliament, though the artists Parliament and the State legislatures in ensuring the financial accountability of the executive government.“ Legal Aptitude And Legal Reasoning For The Clat by AP Bhardwaj, Page 166:CAG  is an officer of the parliament and he is called the eyes and ears of the public accounts Committee.

Statement #2 is debatable because:

#2 is wrong #2 is right
It says “He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House.”M.Laxmikanth chapter on CAG

  • Procedure for the removal of CAG is similar to SC Judge (special majority of both houses).
  • Art 149 authorises the parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of CAG. Accordingly, the parliament enacted CAG Act 1971.
  • “CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the public accounts Committee of parliament.”

These provisions suggest that he is answerable to parliament.

those provisions are right but he is not “Directly” answerable in the parliament like an MP or Minister or PM.

Final answer: wait for the UPSC’s official key.

Any correction/update- mention in the comments. But avoid Wikipedia as reference source.
— THE END of Polity answerkey—Remaining subjects (geography, science, economy, current etc.) coming soon. Visit Mrunal.org/CDS for more on Combined defense services exam and SSB interviews.

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50 Comments on “[Answerkey] CDS-2014: Polity, Constitution, Parliament related MCQs solved with explanation”

  1. they shall at least a spent equal to the poor is to constitute a sitting of the house that is 1/10 of the total number of members of the house

    what did these mean?

  2. Dear Sir I FILED A RTI FOR GETTING COPIES OF MY MAINS ANSWER SHEET BUT UPSC HAS DENIED TO GIVE THE SAME , SAYING THEY CAN’T SUPPLY…….THEY HAVE TAKEN SHELTER OF SOME CLAUSE OF RTI ACT. WHAT SHOULD I DO NOW?????/
    REGARDS,
    SP GAUTAM/9766341231

    1. Kindly keep all of us updated on what happens next.

  3. In the constitutional amendment Bill President cannot reject but he CAN reject the bill in case of money bill. He cannot return the bill for reconsideration in case of a money bill. Please correct.

    1. Rajya Sabha can amend the finance bill if it is about the reduction or abolition of tax. If the amendment is other than reduction or abolition of tax, this amendment cannot be moved in either house without the recommendation of parliament. So amendment of finance bill with respect to abolition/reduction and does not require President recommendation.

  4. Q3. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’ under parliamentary democracy implies that

    a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister
    No person shall be nominated to the Cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister
    No person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1
    2 only
    3 only
    2 and 3

    Dismisal by President on advice of PM is given under individual responsibility in DD basu
    So , I suppose only 2 is correct

  5. Question related to CAG has directly been put from parliamentary handbook, under chapter VIII ‘Parliamentary Functionaries’ it says
    IX. Comptroller and Auditor-General
    The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is not an Officer of Parliament.
    He is an independent constitutional authority, not directly answerable to the House,
    but represented there only through a Minister.

  6. Q1. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct?

    He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the President.
    He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1 only
    2 only
    Both 1 and 2
    Neither 1 nor 2

    bothe are right, source upsc answer key http://upsc.gov.in/exams/answerkeys/2014/cds_I_2014/cdsI2014_GK0001%20(1).pdf

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