[Answerkey] CDS-2014: Polity, Constitution, Parliament related MCQs solved with explanation

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  1. Polity analysis
    1. [Table] Polity in CDS vs CAPF vs CSAT
    2. [Table] Polity: Internal Breakup
    3. Polity Difficulty level
    4. Polity Current Affairs
    5. Polity reference booklist for next CDS exam
  2. [MCQ] Terms related to Democracy/Pol.sci
  3. [MCQ] Constitution:  Origin & Amendment
  4. [MCQ] Preamble, Citizenship, FR/FD/DPSP
  5. [MCQ] The Union
    1. #U1: President related
    2. #U2: Parliament law making & motions
    3. #U3: Speaker & Dy.Speaker related
    4. #U4: Parliamentary Committees
  6. [MCQ] Bodies: CAG

Polity analysis

in the previous article, we solved the history portion. click me. Now time for polity.

Polity in CDS vs CAPF vs CSAT
TopicCDS1-2014CDS2-2013CDS1-2013CAPF-2013CSAT-2013
Polity2311141418
total MCQs120120120125100
%19%9%12%11%18%

For last two CDS exams, UPSC barely asked ~10% of the MCQs from polity. But this year nearly 20% or ~1/5th of the paper is from polity. This closely resembles the breakup of CSAT 2013.

[Table] Polity: Internal Breakup

Polity topictotal%
terms313%
origin and amendment313%
FR-FD-Citizenship313%
President417%
parliament – law making & motions313%
Parliament speaker-Dy speaker29%
parliament Committee417%
bodies-CAG14%
Total23100%
  • Within polity, largest number of MCQs came from parliament (13+9+17)=~40%.
  • Nothing from statutory bodies, nothing from state government, nothing (directly) from Judiciary.

Polity Difficulty level

Debatable. Depends on person to person, depending on his preparation level.

  • IN CDS(II)-2013, only one MCQ outside M.Laxmikanth’s book, hence paper was very easy.
  • In CDS(I)-2014: 10 out 23 could be directly solved from M.Laxmikanth + NCERTs without much effort.
  • But the remaining 13 MCQs- information not given straightforward in the usual books. In some of these MCQs, you needed to take calculated risk or leave it altogether.
  • so, in that sense, polity section was quite tough compared to the usual standards of CDS exam.

Overall, I classify following as tough/trap MCQs:

  1. Parliamentary Committee on SC/ST: because the relevant info not given in Laxmi, Lucent, GS Manual or India Yearbook.
  2. Parliamentary Committee on Women: same problem as above
  3. Ambedkar’s speech: same as above
  4. Cooperative societies (Because most CDS aspirants don’t prepare current-polity that deep. They confine mostly to PIN/election type)
  5. judgment about Fundamental rights (trap MCQ- answer is not Golak Nath)
  6. President’s approval not necessary for… (trap MCQ)

For CSAT (IAS/IPS/IFoS) aspirant- there is a hidden message- prepare the details of parliamentary Committees from its official site: http://164.100.47.134/committee/

Polity Current Affairs

Only one MCQ from polity related current affairs (about SC’s judgment about cooperative societies). That news happened in October 2013, CDS exam taken in Feb 2014=> hints us that the span of current affairs = ~six months for CDS exam. (More will be revealed once we solve the PIN/award type MCQs later on.)

Polity reference booklist for next CDS exam

  1. Selective reading of NCERT civics and political science book. Because two MCQs had verbatim statements from NCERT of class 9 and 11.
  2. The “Base” material is still the same: Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth (Tata Macgrawill publication). Also available in Hindi under the title Bharat ki Rajyavyavastha (4th edition)flipkart
  3. (optional) Lucent GK Book for quick revision of polity related fact/data.
  4. Solve polity MCQs from GS Manual.
  5. waste of time:: DD Basu, Subhash Kashyap, MV Paylee etc= overkill for this CDS exam, given the Cost : benefit. Hence Not recommended. Better invest that much time in history, science, geography maths and English grammar.

Anyways, let’s start solving the History MCQs.  (Remaining subjects- geography, science, IR and Current  in separate articles soon). Any correction, mention in the comments- but avoid Wikipedia as reference source.

[MCQ] Terms related to Democracy/Pol.sci

Three MCQs from this area.

Q1. Political theory

  1. deals with the ideas and Principles that shape Constitutions
  2. clarifies the meaning of freedom, equality and justice
  3. probes the significance of principles of rule of law, separation of power and judicial review

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Page 6 of Political Theory Class 11th NCERT. all three statements are given verbatim in the first paragraph. =>answer is (D) all correct.

Q2. Consider the following statements about Democracy :

  1. It consists with the formation of government elected by the people.
  2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
  3. Each vote has one value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

All three statements are given verbatim in NCERT Class 9 civics, Ch2 page 28 and 30=> answer (B) all correct.

Q3. What do you understand by the term `propaganda’?

  1. It is an unverified story that is spread from one person to another.
  2. It is communication tailored to influence opinion.
  3. It is an enthusiasm among a relatively large number of people for a particular innovation.
  4. It is a tool of oration used only by political parties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

As per Merriam Webster Dictionary, Rumour = information or a story that is passed from person to person but has not been proven to be true. =>Statement #1 is wrong. Propaganda is not the same thing as rumour. Eliminate options accordingly

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

now it boils down to whether #4 is right or not.

As per Merriam Webster Dictionary,

Prior to the 20th century, pictures and the written media were the principal instruments of propaganda; radio, television, motion pictures, and the Internet later joined their ranks.

Meaning propaganda doesn’t involve “ONLY” oration by political parties. Propaganda involves above movies, internet et. as well. Hence #4 is wrong=>C also wrong.

Thus we are left with answer (A) 2 only. And #2 is right, as per the definition given by Merriam: Propaganda= Manipulation of information to influence public opinion.

[MCQ] Constitution:  Origin & Amendment

Q1.Match List –I and List –II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List –I(Person)List II
A.Rajendra Prasad1.Member,Drafting Committee
B.T.T. Krishnamachari2.Chairman,Constituent Assembly
C. H.C. Mookherjee3.Chaiman,Drafting Committee
D. B.R. Ambedkar4.Vice-Chairman,Constituent Assembly

Code:

ABCD
a2143
b2413
c3412
d3142

Correct pair is following (M.Laxmikanth page 2.2, 2.4 and 2.5)

  • A2: Rajendra Prasad = chairman of Constituent assembly
  • B1: TT Kishnamachair = member of drafting Committee (he replaced DP Khaitan who died in 1948)
  • C4: HC Mookherjee =VC of Constituent assembly
  • D3: Dr.Ambedkar= Drafting Committee

Accordingly, the answer is (A)

Q2. “The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the ‘-government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any ,particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy.”

The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to

  1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
  3. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
  4. Acharya J. B. Kriplani

This statement was made by Dr.BR Ambedkar. Ref: Uniform Civil Code by M. S. Ratnaparkhi Page 90.

Q3.There are provisions in the constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include

  1. any law under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States)
  2. any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new States)
  3. amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule

Select the answer.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1,2,3
  4. None

M.Laxmikanth Page 5.2.

The constitution art4 itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Art2) and formation of new states and alternation of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (Art3) are not to be considered as amendments of the constitution under Art.368. Hence #1 and #2 are definitely correct=> option B and D eliminated.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1,2,3
  4. None

now everything boils down to whether #3 is right or wrong?

According to Article4(2), any law made to amend the 1st or 4th schedule, will not be considered an amendment of the Constitution. => Hence 3 also right.

Therefore, final answer C: 1, 2 and 3.

[MCQ] Preamble, Citizenship, FR/FD/DPSP

three MCQs from this segment:

Q1. The Fundamental Rights, enshrined in Part III of the Constitution of India, “are inherent and cannot be extinguished by any constitutional and statutory provision”. This was made clear in the case of

  1. K. Gopalan v. State of – Madras
  2. I C Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
  3. State of West Bengal V. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal
  4. Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India

This is trap question. Many candidates may get tempted to tick Golak Nath BUT in reality- the given verdict statement belongs State of West Bengal V. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal.

Ref:

  1. Thehindu dated 18-2-2010
  2. Judgement uploaded on Indiakanoon.org

Hence answer C.

Q2.The citizenship means

  1. full civil and political rights of the citizens
  2. the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People(of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every State
  3. The right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Observe the second statement

The right of suffrage for election to the House of the People(of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every State.

The word “Every” makes this statement wrong. Because the resident citizen of Gujarat cannot v ote in the state legislative assembly election of MP or Rajasthan. Hence statement #2 is wrong, remove the choices accordingly, we are left with answer (B) only 1 and 3.

Q.3. Consider the following statements :

  1. Forming a cooperative society is a Fundamental Right in India.
  2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the ambit of the Right to Information Act, 2005.

Which of the statements given above is /are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

As per TheHindu 12 October 2013 about Supreme court judgement.

  1. Forming cooperative society = fundamental right.
  2. Cooperatives don’t fall under RTI.

Therefore, answer (C) both 1 and 2 correct.

[MCQ] The Union

Majority of the MCQs from this area- especially parliament related:

#U1: President related

Q1. Certain Bills cannot be introduced or proceeded with unless the recommendation of the President is received. However, no recommenda­tion is required in some other cases. In which one of the following cases such recommendation is not required?

  1. For introduction of Bills and for moving amendments relating to financial matters
  2. For introduction of a Bill relating to formation of new States or of alteration of areas of existing States
  3. For moving of an amendment making provision for the reduction or abolition of any tax
  4. For introduction of a Bill or moving of an amendment affecting taxation in which States are interested

Trap Question – many candidates would want to tick (D) but, As per Article 117, President’s recommendation not necessary to move an amendment making provisions for reduction or abolition of any tax. Hence Answer C

Q2.After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or ­withhold his assent. The President may

  1. assent within six months
  2. assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible
  3. return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill
  4. withhold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses

The wording of the question is confusing. But in reality, he has merely lifted half the passage from Article 111 and required you to finish the statement. We can go by elimination method, using page 17.9 of M.Laxmikanth

  1. assent within six months
not necessary “6 months”. He can do pocket veto for indefinite time.
  1. assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible
not necessary “as soon as possible”- he can use pocket veto. Besides, in case of Constitutional amendment / money bill he cannot reject.
  1. return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill
since A, B and D are wrong. we are left with answer C.
  1. withhold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses
cannot do so, as per the provisions of Art 111

Answer C

Q3. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the

  1. Speaker may direct
  2. President of India may direct
  3. Parliament may decide
  4. Finance Minister may decide

As per Loksabha rule 204(1) The Annual Financial Statement or the Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the President may direct. Hence B is the answer.

Q4. Which of the following statements in the context of structure of the Parliament is/are correct?

  1. The Parliament of India consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.
  2. The President of India is directly elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of the Parliament only.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

M.Laxmikanth Page 22.1 =Statement #1 is right.

M.Laxmikanth Page 17.1= Statement #2 is wrong because President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of

  1. elected member of parliament
  2. elected member of SLA
  3. elected member of Delhi + Puducherry.

Therefore final answer A” only 1 correct.

#U2: Parliament law making & motions

Q1. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws

  1. on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List
  2. in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable
  3. for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3
on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State ListCorrect under Residuary legislative powers, Page 14.2 M.Laxmikanth
in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirableCorrect, page 14.3 M.Laxmikanth
for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State ListCorrect, Page 14.3 M.Laxmikanth

Hence answer (D)

Q2. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Joint Session of the Houses of the Parliament in India?

  1. It is an enabling provision, empowering the President to take steps for resolving deadlock between the two Houses.
  2. It is not obligatory upon the President to summon the Houses to meet in a joint sitting.
  3. It is being notified by the President.
  4. It is frequently resorted to establish the supremacy of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 and 4

Statement #1 is right (M.Laxmikanth Page 22.21)=> option C and D eliminated because they donot contain #1.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 and 4

observe that both option A and B contain 1 and 2. So, ultimate answer depends on whether #3 is right or not.

As per M.Laxmikanth Page 22.21

“After the President notifies his intention to summon a joint sitting of the two houses, none of the houses can proceed further with the bill.”

Meaning #3 is right=> Final answer is B. 1, 2 and 3 correct.

By the way, Statement #4 is wrong because

M.Laxmikanth page 22.21

Since 1950, the provision regarding joint sitting , has been involveked only thrice (Dowry, Banking, Terrorism). => Meaning, it is not “frequently” resorted=> #4 is wrong=>Option D eliminated.

Q3. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’ under parliamentary democracy implies that

  1. a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister
  2. No person shall be nominated to the Cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister
  3. No person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Statement #1 wrong:

As per M.Laxmikanth page 22.15, No confidence motion can be moved against the entire council of minister only. (while censure motion can be moved against either individual minister or the whole council). This eliminates #A. because Statement 1 is wrong.

Statement #2 and #3 are right. As per M.Laxmikanth page 20.3, speech by Dr.Ambedkar

“Collective responsibility can be achieved only through the instrumentality of the Prime Minister. Therefore, unless and until we create that office and endow that office with statutory authority to nominate and dismiss ministers, there can be no collective responsibility.”

Hence answer (D)

Q4. The subject matter of an adjournment motion in the Parliament

  1. must be directly related to the conduct of the Union Government
  2. may involve failure of the Government of India to perform its duties in Accordance with the Constitution

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

M.Laxmikanth page 22.15 indirectly hints that above statements are correct. But to be sure, we should check official page of Lok Sabha:

  • Adjournment motion must have a direct or indirect relation to the conduct or default on the part of the Union Government=> #1 is right
  • Adjournment motion “must” precisely pin-point the failure of the Government of India in the performance of its duties in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution and Law.=>#2 is wrong because it says “may involve”.

therefore, answer A: only 1.

#U3: Speaker & Dy.Speaker related

Q1. Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognizing a parliamentary party or group?

  1. An association of members who have an organization both inside and outside the House
  2. An association of members who shall have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House
  3. An association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Parliament of India: The ninth Lok Sabha, 1989-1991 by L M SINGHVI, Page 28

In recognising of parliamentary party or group, the Speaker shall take into consideration the following principles.

  1. they shall have an organisation both inside and outside the house
  2. they shall at least a spent equal to the poor is to constitute a sitting of the house that is 1/10 of the total number of members of the house
  3. They shall have announced at the time of general election, a distinct ideology and program of a parliamentary work on which they have been returned to the house

so, accordingly all three statements are correct, hence answer (A)

Q2. Which of the statements relating to the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha is/are correct?

  1. The office of the Deputy Speaker acquired a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution of India in 1950.
  2. He/She is elected from amongst the members.
  3. He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3 only

As per Parliament’s handbook ch.8 (parliamentary functionaries)

Office  of  the  Deputy  Speaker  has  grown  in  importance  and  has  come  to acquire a more prominent position after the enforcement of the Constitution in 1950.=>#1 is right. This eliminates D

M.Laxmikanth page 22.8 Dy Speaker is elected  by Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members=>#2 is right.  This eliminates #A.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 3 only

Now it boils down to whether #3 is right or wrong.

He/She holds office until he/she ceases to be a member of the House.

RIGHT BECAUSEWRONG BECAUSE
clearly given in M.Laxmikanth Page 22.8
but the given statement doesn’t say “only”. Therefore, such caveats/nitpicking are donot make the statement wrong.he can also stop holding the “office” by

  • resigning
  • When a resolution passed by majority of the Lok Sabha members….
final answer Cfinal answer B

Ultimate judge : UPSC’s official answer key.

#U4: Parliamentary Committees

Q1. The functions of the Committee on Estimates, as incorporated in the Constitution of India, shall be to

  1. report what economies, improvements in organization, efficiency or administrative reform may be effected
  2. suggest alternative policies in order to bring about efficiency and economy in administration
  3. examine whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the

estimates

  1. examine the reports, if any, of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 3 and 4

M.Laxmikanth Page 22.31 => Committee on public undertaking – examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General on the public undertakings. => Statement #4 is definitely wrong. That eliminates (D). And from the same page of M.Laxmikanth, Functions of Estimate committee=> statemen no. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Therefore, answer (C).

Q2.The Committee on Public Accounts under the Constitution of India is meant for

  1. The examination of accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by the House for the expenditure of the Government of India
  2. scrutinizing report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
  3. suggesting the form in which estimates shall be presented to the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Statement #1 and #2 are correct, as per Page 22.30 of M.Laxmikanth. Statement #3 is the function of Estimate committee (page 22.31)=> hence #3 is wrong. Therefore, answer (C) only 1 and 2.

Q3. The Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the Welfare of the Scheduled Castes (SCs) and  the Scheduled Tribes (STs) shall

  1. examine whether the Union Government has secured due representation of the SCs and the STs in the services and posts under its control
  2. report on the working of the welfare programmes for the SCs and the STs in the Union Territories

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

M.Laxmikanth Page 22.32 and 22.33 gave brief overview. But it is silent on whether above statements are right or wrong. India Yearbook ch3 page 37 also talks about this Committee but silent on the given statement.

But As per the: official website of parliament both statements are correct. Hence answer C.

Q4. Which one of the following statements regarding the Departmental Committee of the Parliament of India on the empowerment of women is correct?

  1. The Committee will consist of members of the Lok Sabha only
  2. A Cabinet Minister can be a member of the Committee
  3. The term of office of the members of the Committee shall not exceed two years
  4. It reports on the working of welfare programmes for the women

M.Laxmikanth page 22.33 talks about this Committee. It consists of 20 Loksabha + 10 Rajya Sabha members=> A is wrong. But the book is silent on the other three statements. Same problem with India Yearbook ch3 page 37- it also talks about this Committee but silent on the given statement. We have to check the official page of parliament

  • Minister cannot be its member=>B is wrong
  • Term = 1 year =>C is wrong
  • Therefore we are automatically left with answer (D).

[MCQ] Bodies: CAG

Q1. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct?

  1. He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the President.
  2. He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Statement #1 debatable because

STATEMENT #1 IS RIGHTSTATEMENT 1 IS WRONG
Parliamentary Control and Government Accountability in South Asia: by Taiabur Rahman, Page 156: “Unlike Britain and some other leading Commonwealth countries, he is not an independent officer of the Parliament.“World of Bribery and Corruption: By Nau Nihal Singh, Page 363: “The CAG of India is not formally an officer of the Parliament, though the artists Parliament and the State legislatures in ensuring the financial accountability of the executive government.“Legal Aptitude And Legal Reasoning For The Clat by AP Bhardwaj, Page 166:CAG  is an officer of the parliament and he is called the eyes and ears of the public accounts Committee.

Statement #2 is debatable because:

#2 is wrong#2 is right
It says “He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House.”M.Laxmikanth chapter on CAG

  • Procedure for the removal of CAG is similar to SC Judge (special majority of both houses).
  • Art 149 authorises the parliament to prescribe the duties and powers of CAG. Accordingly, the parliament enacted CAG Act 1971.
  • “CAG acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the public accounts Committee of parliament.”

These provisions suggest that he is answerable to parliament.

those provisions are right but he is not “Directly” answerable in the parliament like an MP or Minister or PM.

Final answer: wait for the UPSC’s official key.

Any correction/update- mention in the comments. But avoid Wikipedia as reference source.
— THE END of Polity answerkey—Remaining subjects (geography, science, economy, current etc.) coming soon. Visit Mrunal.org/CDS for more on Combined defense services exam and SSB interviews.

Mrunal recommends

  1. (free) NCERT, NIOS, TN-Books 4 History,Geo,Sci
  2. Indian Polity M.Laxmikanth (Hindi | English)
  3. Spectrum: Modern History (Hindi | English)
  4. Maths: Quantam CAT Sarvesh Kumar
  5. Objective General English SP Bakshi
  6. Word Power made Easy -Norman Lowe
  7. Topic wise Solved Paperset by Disha

50 Comments on “[Answerkey] CDS-2014: Polity, Constitution, Parliament related MCQs solved with explanation”

  1. Thanks Sir for these articles.
    These r guiding me to prepare my own strategy for these exams. :)

    One questn Sir..is it necessary to buy the 4th edition of M. Laxmikanth? I have 3rd edition.

  2. Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognizing a parliamentary party or group?
    you have made a careless mistake while answering this Qn… ans = 1 & 3 only

  3. sir i have a 4th edition laxmikant book.sir pls tell me it is good or bad .between old laxmikant book.

  4. Thnx sir….sir in propaganda quetion u metioned not verified yet nd in answer unverified story so both are same bt ur statment confusing me…plz solve doubt sir….fr histry tel me what books to read ncert or tn board or spectrm fr capf exam…people hav mentioned so many sources which all cant b coverd due to tim restriction so plz remov my confusion sirrr

  5. Sir, your method of explaination is outstanding. Thank you too much

  6. sir, the appearance/interface of ur blog was better earlier.

  7. Hello sir, You solved totally 24 questions, not 23

  8. Dear mrunal, in mains examination, upsc using terms like analyse, examine, critically analyse or examine, illustrate,explain. For this each term, how we have to start and where we have to give these and that things and how we have to end….

    1. It’s explained in September “write to win” article series under head-“What to write in answer”.

    2. I hope this will hep you

      Analyse
       Separate or break up something into its component parts so that you discover its nature proportion, function, relationship, etc.

      Comment
       Make critical observations, even if they are fairly open-ended. Your texts, learning guide, lecture and discussion notes should provide sufficient guidelines and your own commonsense should prevail.

      Compare
       Find similarities and differences between two or more ideas, events, interpretations, etc. Ensure you understand exactly what you are being asked to compare

      Contrast
       Find similarities and differences between two or more ideas, events, interpretations etc. Focus on the differences.
      Critical Analysis
       Examine the topic or argument in terms of its strengths and weaknesses.

      Criticise
       Express your judgements regarding the correctness or merit of the factors being considered. Discuss both strong and weak points and give the results of your own analysis. Student insights are expected and arguments must be justified.

      Define
       Provide concise, clear, authoritative meanings. In such statements, details are not necessarily required, but briefly cite the boundaries or limitations of the definition. Remeber the ‘class’ to which a things belongs and whatever differentiates the particular object from all others in that class.

      Describe
       Recall facts, processes or events. You are not asked to explain or interpret. Try to provide a thorough description, emphasising the most important points
      Diagram
       Present a drawing, chart, plan or graphic representation in your answer. Generally, you are also expected to label the diagram and a brief explanation or description may be required.
      Distinguish between
       You have to write all those areas where two or more topics asked in the question differ from each other.

      Discuss
       Present a point of view. This is likely to need both description and interpretation. Your opinion must be supported by carefully chosen and authoritative evidence.
      Elaborate
       Simply expand what has been asked in the question

      Elucidate
       Similar to ‘explain’ but here the statement or the topic in question will not be that straight and you will have to treat in more depth

      Enumerate
       Provide a list or outline form of reply. In such questions you should recount, one by one, but concisely, the points required.

      Evaluate
       Present a judgement of an issue by stressing both strengths and advantages, and weaknesses and limitations. The emphasis is on assessing the value, worth or relevance of the matter under scrutinty.

      Explain
       Your main focus should be on the ‘why’ of a particular issue, or on the ‘how’ with the aim of clarifying reasons, causes and effects. You are being tested on your capacity to think critically, to exercise perception and discernment.

      Illustrate
       This asks for an explanation; you may clarify your answer to a problem by presenting a figure, picture, diagram or concrete example.

      Interpret
       Explain the meaning of something and give your own judgement of the situation.

      Narrate
       Simply pen down in an orderly or chronological manner

      To what extend
       You have to evaluate the degree or the magnitude to which the given argument holds valid or invalid.

      List
       Give an itemised series or tabulation; such answers should be concise.

      Outline
       This asks for an organised description. Give the main points and essential supplementary materials, but omit minor details. Present the information in a systematic arrangement or classification.

      Prove
       To conform or verify. You should establish something with certainty by evaluating and citing experimental evidence, or by logical reasoning.

      Relate
       When showing relationships, your answer should emphasise connection and associations in a descriptive manner.

      Review
       Re-examine, analyse and comment briefly (in an organised sequence) on the major points of an issue. Re-examine, analyse and comment briefly (in an organised sequence) on the major points of an issue.

      State
       Express the high points in brief and clear narrative form. Details, and usually illustrations or examples, may be omitted.

      Summarise
       Provide a brief statement or an account covering the main points; omit details.

      Trace
       Give the development, process or history of a thing, event or idea, especially by proceeding from the latest to the earliest evidence.

  9. mrunalbhai, i would like a source for your statement saying “The word “Every” makes this statement wrong. Because the resident citizen of Gujarat cannot v ote in the state legislative assembly election of MP or Rajasthan.”

  10. statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India:
    1. “Comptroller and Auditor-General of India who shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal”. Does it not mean that he is officer under president.
    2. Supreme Court jurisdiction in some cases can also be changed by parliament and its judges can also be removed as CAG. Does it mean that supreme court is directly answerable to parliament?
    3. If in this question CAG is replaced by Election Commision of India, than what will be the answer? (I think both 1 and 2 are correct will be the answer)

  11. Dear sir…. after giving answer key of all other section of G.S. Paper …. plz also give answer key of ENGLISH paer also…. I am curious about it…… Thanks for detailed answer key….

  12. Mrunal,
    Thanks for the article.
    On “Adjournment Motion page- Loksabha, the weblink you’ve given” it is mentioned that:
    “A ballot is held to determine the relative priority of all notices received on the same subject for the sitting for which they are valid.”

    Could you please elaborate it?
    I couldn’t find any clue on “ballot in adjournment” in Laxmikant either.

    Thanks and regards.

  13. #U2: Parliament law making & motions

    Q1. The legislative power of the Parliament includes making laws

    1.on matters not enumerated in the Concurrent List and State List
    2.in respect of entries in the State List if two or more State Legislatures consider it desirable
    3.for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any country even if it falls in the State List
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    2 only
    1 and 2 only
    1 and 3 only
    1,2 and 3

    as per A-249 it should be 2/3rd of rajya sabha.
    so answer should be 1 and 3.

    1. @Niraj: See Article 252.

  14. Q3.There are provisions in the constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include

    any law under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States)
    any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new States)
    amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule
    Select the answer.

    1 and 2 only
    2 and 3
    1,2,3
    None

    ans: none….
    source: laxmikant…. (same)

    1. u r absolutely correct…….Article 4 says

      (1) Any law referred to in Article 2 or Article 3 shall contain such provisions for the amendment of the First Schedule and the Fourth Schedule as may be necessary to give effect to the provisions of the law and may also contain such supplemental, incidental and consequential provisions (including provisions as to representation in Parliament and in the Legislature or Legislatures of the State or States affected by such law) as Parliament may deem necessary

      (2) No such law as aforesaid shall be deemed to be an amendment of this Constitution for the purposes of Article 368.

      So “any” in the 1st and 2nd statements is wrong. only those laws made under A2 and A3 which don’t affect any other provision of the constitution other than schedule 1 and 4 are not to be considered const. amendments. eg AP reorganization act

      see 10th constitutional amend – Incorporation of dadra and nagar haveli
      12th CA- incorporation of goa,daman and diu.
      even in these cases law was made under A3…so why was CA reqd….?
      bcoz it also involved amending A240 of the const other than amending schedule 1…..hence if the law had affected only schedule 1 no CA would have been reqd.

  15. the first question in PREAMBLE CITIZENSHIP was based on the verdict by JUSTICE P.SATHASIVAM who recently became the chief justice

  16. Sir,in the study plan for CAPF exam,you have given reference to new ncert books for history,but now TAMIL NADU state books are also available……so should we stick to those ncert books or should we switch over to TN books……if latter is suggested by you,then what are the important chapters in them for CAPF…..

  17. @Mrunal
    start answer writing competition for optional as well gs and essay topics. the current essay competition is of little value. mock test for essay, optional and gs will be more useful for the ias aspirants.

  18. mrunal sir, please release articles in a continue row in a series otherwise flow of study of reading your articles disconnect.

  19. Q2.The citizenship means

    1.full civil and political rights of the citizens
    2.the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People(of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every State
    3.The right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    In this question, Right answer is 1,2 and 3. mrunal sir, 2nd statement directly taken from DD.Basu (Citizenship chapter(Pg.no-75 in 21st edition))…!

    1. Maniknanda. statement 3 is correct ? because I have ticked 1,2 and 3

      1. sorry statement 2

  20. awsme article…….thnks………….

  21. mrunal sir , for constitutional amendment both the houses will pass the bill separately, and there is no provision for joint sitting

    but there are three joint sittings i.e dowry prohibition bill, banking service commsiion ordinance, and POTO till now
    whether these bills are not a constituion amendment bills ?
    if yes why joint sitting is taken place when there is no provision.

    please explain

    thanks in advance

    1. Dowry,Banking,pota. Were not Constitution amendment bills..they are ordinary law making bills..that’s why there were joint sitting allowed as per. Art.108.

  22. Q3.There are provisions in the constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include

    any law under Article 2 (relating to admission or establishment of new States)
    any law made under Article 3 (relating to formation of new States)
    amendment of First Schedule and Fourth Schedule
    Select the answer.

    a)1 and 2 only
    b)2 and 3
    c)1,2,3
    d)None

    For this question Mrunal says Option ‘c’, i feel the correct answer is option ‘a’.Regarding 1 and 2 things are clear.When changes are made to Schedule IV under Art 2 and 3 , it is not considered an amendment.But Schedule IV also contains provisions for Representation of states in Council of states under Art 80,81 and if changes are made to Schedule IV under Art 80,81 , this would be considered amendment of constitution.Moreover this would be required to be ratified by more than half of the states, apart from special majority in Parliament.

    1. akshay for ur ques no.3,,,,,,all the 3 statements r correct,,it is explicitly mentioned ,,,that amendments for these clauses r not deemed to be so as AMENDMENTS IN THE CONSTITUTION.
      so the answer is c only

      1. Schedule 4 says ,,,,allocation of seats in rajya sabha,,,,,distribution of seats amended without amendment in constitution does nt abridges the federal character

  23. For cag question: it is mentioned in the lakshmikant that cag is responsible only to parliament under his ROLE

  24. Q1. Which of the following principles is/are taken into consideration by the Speaker while recognizing a parliamentary party or group?

    An association of members who have an organization both inside and outside the House
    An association of members who shall have at least one-third of the total number of members of the House
    An association of members who have a distinct programme of parliamentary work
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1, 2 and 3
    1 only
    1 and 3 only
    2 and 3 only
    Parliament of India: The ninth Lok Sabha, 1989-1991 by L M SINGHVI, Page 28

    In recognising of parliamentary party or group, the Speaker shall take into consideration the following principles.

    they shall have an organisation both inside and outside the house
    they shall at least a spent equal to the poor is to constitute a sitting of the house that is 1/10 of the total number of members of the house
    They shall have announced at the time of general election, a distinct ideology and program of a parliamentary work on which they have been returned to the house
    so, accordingly all three statements are correct, hence answer (A)

    Sir in this ques, in the explanation, it is said that 1/10th of the total number of members of the house whereas in the options it is said 1/3rd..So 2nd option should be wrong. Correct me if i understood it wrongly.

  25. My God!!! This was difficult! I would have failed to get more than 15 questions correct! DAMN

    Lagta hai 2015 ki prep. karni padegi.

  26. I think the problem lies in the kind of language they have used. It is very ambiguous. Just to impress people of how well learned and out of this world they are they have twisted the words e.g

    Q3.There are provisions in the constitution of India which empower the Parliament to modify or annul the operation of certain provisions of the Constitution without actually amending them. They include

    now fact is, constitution can be amended by three ways

    Simple Majority
    spcl majority
    and
    special majority and ratification by more than half states

    Ok, do not consider as constitutional amendment under 368 but they are infact amendment. Correct me if I am wrong

  27. Q2.The citizenship means

    full civil and political rights of the citizens
    the right of suffrage for election to the House of the People(of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every State
    The right to become a Member of the Parliament and Member of Legislative Assemblies.

    Statement 3…it is NOT a right, but an oppourtunity. But another thing is, any citizen of India can become a M.P/M.L.A as, unlike U.S (Hussain Obama) in India ( Sonia G) s/he can become P.M/M.P

    Although, this will also lead to same answer by elimination

  28. Q2.After a Bill has been passed by the Houses of the Parliament, it is presented to the President who may either give assent to the Bill or ­withhold his assent. The President may

    assent within six months= You are correct
    assent or reject the Bill as soon as possible= Werid statement
    return the Bill as soon as possible after the Bill is presented to him with a message requesting the House to reconsider the Bill=yes ( at most once 44th A.A 1978 )
    withhold his assent even if the Bill is passed again by the Houses= Yes he can, until it is a Money bill or Const. A Bill in which case, breach of const. = Impeachment.)

    1. My bad…correction

      If the parliament passes it again, it MUST and MUST be accepted by Prez. This is know as Ssuspensive veto, which is overruled by ordinary majority.

  29. Q3. The Annual Financial Statement of the Government of India in respect of each financial year shall be presented to the House on such day as the

    The real question simply is ” Who causes to be laid the AFS ”

    faltu ki Angrezi…batao, dara diya mere ko. No wonder Hindi Madhyam k lo dharna de rahe hai.

  30. they shall at least a spent equal to the poor is to constitute a sitting of the house that is 1/10 of the total number of members of the house

    what did these mean?

  31. Dear Sir I FILED A RTI FOR GETTING COPIES OF MY MAINS ANSWER SHEET BUT UPSC HAS DENIED TO GIVE THE SAME , SAYING THEY CAN’T SUPPLY…….THEY HAVE TAKEN SHELTER OF SOME CLAUSE OF RTI ACT. WHAT SHOULD I DO NOW?????/
    REGARDS,
    SP GAUTAM/9766341231

    1. Kindly keep all of us updated on what happens next.

  32. In the constitutional amendment Bill President cannot reject but he CAN reject the bill in case of money bill. He cannot return the bill for reconsideration in case of a money bill. Please correct.

    1. Rajya Sabha can amend the finance bill if it is about the reduction or abolition of tax. If the amendment is other than reduction or abolition of tax, this amendment cannot be moved in either house without the recommendation of parliament. So amendment of finance bill with respect to abolition/reduction and does not require President recommendation.

  33. Q3. The principle of ‘collective responsibility’ under parliamentary democracy implies that

    a motion of no-confidence can be moved in the Council of Ministers as a whole as well as an individual minister
    No person shall be nominated to the Cabinet except on the advice of the Prime Minister
    No person shall be retained as a member of the Cabinet if the Prime Minister says that he shall be dismissed.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1
    2 only
    3 only
    2 and 3

    Dismisal by President on advice of PM is given under individual responsibility in DD basu
    So , I suppose only 2 is correct

  34. Question related to CAG has directly been put from parliamentary handbook, under chapter VIII ‘Parliamentary Functionaries’ it says
    IX. Comptroller and Auditor-General
    The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is not an Officer of Parliament.
    He is an independent constitutional authority, not directly answerable to the House,
    but represented there only through a Minister.

  35. Q1. Which of the following statements relating to Comptroller and Auditor General in India is/are correct?

    He/She is not an officer of the Parliament but an officer under the President.
    He/She is an independent constitutional authority not directly answerable to the House.
    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1 only
    2 only
    Both 1 and 2
    Neither 1 nor 2

    bothe are right, source upsc answer key http://upsc.gov.in/exams/answerkeys/2014/cds_I_2014/cdsI2014_GK0001%20(1).pdf

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