[Mock Test #3] India Yearbook Chapter 1 to 12: one hundred MCQs for UPSC Prelims

1. Instructions
2. Question 1 to 25
3. Question 26 to 50
4. Question 51 to 75
5. Question 76 to 100
6. Answerkey

Instructions

• this test contains 100 Questions from chapter 1 to 12 of India Yearbook 2015
• by Venkat Sir of Pandit Deendayal Petroleum University (PDPU) UPSC Study centre, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
• Upcoming tests: India Yearbook Chapter 12 onwards.
• NCERT Class 11 only (all subjects)
• NCERT Class 12 only (all subjects)
• Previous Tests Available at Mrunal.org/Download

Question 1 to 25

1. Which is CORRECT?

1. Rakhine Hills in North-Eastern part of India
2. The little desert extends between Jaisalmer and Jodhpur

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

2. Which is CORRECT?

1. The Eastern Ghats average elevation is about 610 meters.
2. The Cardamom Hills be regarded as a continuation of the Western Ghats.
3. The Himalayan Mountain and the Naga-Lushai Mountain are the regions of the mountain-building movement.

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 &3 only
4. 1, 2 & 3

3. The rock occurs in the Peninsular area of India is

1. Highly metamorphosed rocks
2. Sedimentary
3. Both
4. None

4. Near Passighat, Brahmaputra is joined by

1. Debang
2. Lohit
3. C.Both
4. None

5. Which is CORRECT?

1. The Barak River is the head stream of Meghna, rises in the hills in Manipur
2. Luni, Machhu, Rupen, Saraswati, Banas, and Ghaggar are Desert Rivers

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

6. In India Major river basins have a drainage area

1. Exceeding 20,000 sq.km
2. Exceeding 40,000 sq.km
3. Exceeding 60,000 sq.km
4. Exceeding 80,000 sq.km

7. India can be divided into

1. Eight distinct-floristic-regions
2. Nine distinct-floristic-regions
3. Ten distinct-floristic-regions
4. Eleven distinct-floristic-regions

8. Which is Correctly Matched

1. Western Himalayan – Broad-leaved temperate trees
2. Alpine zone – Silver fir
3. Eastern Himalayan – Rhododendrons
4. Surma Valleys – Evergreen forest

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 3 & 4 Only
3. 1, 2 &3 only
4. 1, 2 , 3 & 4

9. The use of the state emblem of India, as the official seal of the government of India, is regulated by the State of India (Prohibition of Improper Use) Act, passed in

1. 2004
2. 2005
3. 2006
4. 2007

10. Which is CORRECT?

1. In order to develop democratic ethos in the younger generation the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs conducts Youth Parliament Competition in various categories of school and colleges/university.
2. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs organises All India Whips Conference to establish suitable links among the whips of political parties.
3. The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs sponsor Government Goodwill Delegation of Members of Parliament to other countries.

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 &3 only
4. 1, 2 & 3

11. Which is INCORRECT about Indian Coral Reefs?

1. Mangrove areas coverage has higher spread than coral reef areas coverage in India
2. Gulf of Mannar and Andaman and Nicobar islands are the only coral reefs identified for intensive conservation in India

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

12. Which is NOT CORRECT?

1. Administrative reforms Commission-II (ARC) in its report recommended the principle of subsidiarity
2. A performance related incentive scheme has been in the recommendation of the Sixth Pay Commission

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

13. The concept of Sevottam is associated with

1. Reforms, Performance & Public Grievances
2. Defence & National Security
3. Food & Nutrition
4. None of the above

14. The state which introduced the mechanism of Results Framework Document (RFD) even at the district level by formulating district-level RFDs

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Punjab
3. Odisha
4. Gujarat

15. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. The Civil Defence Act, 1968 is applicable throughout the country
2. At present, Civil Defence activities are restricted to 259 categorized towns

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

16. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Home guard is a voluntary force, first raised in 1956
2. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guard Act and Rules of States/Union Territories

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

17. Which is/are NOT CORRECT?

1. The International Institute of Administrative Science (IIAS), its headquarters at Ottawa, Canada.
2. The Commonwealth Association for Public Administration and Management (CAPAM), with its headquarters at Brussels

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

18. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Communication from a Central Government office to states/UTs in region ‘B’ [Official Language Rules] shall ordinarily be in Hindi
2. The Kendriya Hindi Samiti is chaired by the President

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

19. In the following taxonomic group in which India is having 10% of world

1. Arthropoda
2. Chordata
3. Protozoa
4. All the above

20. Which is NOT TRUE about 2011 census

1. More female literates added than male literates
2. Most thickly populated state of Bihar is having density of 860 persons / Sq. Km
3. Child sex ratio declined to 919/1000 male
4. Mizoram is the second in the ranking of literacy among states of India

21. Uttar Pradesh is having highest population in India. It is contributing

1. 16.50 % to total population
2. 17.50 % to total population
3. 18.50 % to total population
4. 19.50 % to total population

22. Who among the following NOT held the post of Speaker twice

1. M. Anathasayanam Ayyangar
2. Gurdial Singh Dhillon
3. Bal Ram Jakhar
4. P. A. Sangma

23. The percentage share of SCs in total population & their representation in Group A services of central government respectively [2011]

1. 16.6 & 11.5
2. 8.6 & 4.8
3. 25.2 & 16.3
4. None

24. 18th National conference on e-governance held in

1. TamilNadu
2. Punjab
3. Odisha
4. Gujarat

25. Which is the most recent one in environmental related initiatives in India?

1. Ratification of the CBD by India
2. Constitution of Central Wetlands Regulatory Authority
3. Enactment of the Biological Diversity Act
4. Notification of Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules

Question 26 to 50

26. In India, agriculture is the principal source of livelihood for more than

1. 45 per cent of the population
2. 55 per cent of the population
3. 65 per cent of the population
4. 75 per cent of the population

27. Assertion: In the recent past, there is a record production of food grains in India

Reason: In successive years, effective transfer of latest crop production technologies to farmer in India

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

28. New crop varieties rich in micronutrients launched in districts most affected by malnutrition. Which is matched? [Micronutrient – Crop]

1. Iron-rich – Bajra
2. Protein-rich – Maize
3. Zinc-rich – Wheat
4. All the above

29. The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) Scheme is in operation throughout the country and is implemented by

1. Commercial Banks
2. Cooperative Banks
3. Regional Rural Banks

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 1 & 3 only
4. 1, 2 & 3

30. Which is/are Correct?

1. There are about 6 lakhs cooperative societies in the country
2. 45% of total sugar production in the country comes from cooperative sugar mills

Answer Choices

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both
4. None

31. Assertion (A): States like Punjab and Haryana have in general higher farm productivity

Reason(R): Punjab and Haryana have in general higher farm power availability

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

32. Assertion (A): There is a significant opportunity and scope for mechanization of agriculture in India

Reason(R): The tractor density in India is about 200 tractors for 1000 hectares

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

33. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. The Forest (Conversation) Act, 1980 provides for prior approval of the state government for diversion of forest lands for non-forestry purposes
2. Currently, seven properties from India are inscribed to the list of Natural World Heritage Sites.

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

34. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. India continues to be the second largest producer of milk in the world.
2. The per capita availability of milk was around 296 grams per day.

Answer Choices

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both
4. None

35. Which is/are NOT correct?

1. Egg production: Per capita availability 57 Eggs in India
2. Wool Production: Declined in India
3. Fisheries Production: India the second largest producer of fresh water fish in the world
4. None

36. A: At present, India has the maximum number of tigers in the world

R: India has long history of conserving the species through Project Tiger

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

37. Which is/are NOT correct?

1. The centre for Cultural Resources and Training (CCRT) is one of the premier institutions working in the field of linking education with culture.
2. Cultural Resources and Training has four regional centres at Udaipur, Hyderabad, Guwahati and Chandigarh

Answer Choices

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both
4. None

38. The activities of the Central Pollution Control Board [CPCB] include

1. Coordinating activities of State Pollution Control Board/Pollution Control Committees
2. Development of environmental guidelines for 17 major polluting industrial sector and monitoring of 17 category / grossly polluting industries
3. Implementation of action plans for improvement of environment in 43 critically polluted areas/clusters
4. Monitoring of action plan for improvement of air quality in 16 polluted cities

Answer choices

1. 1, 2 & 4 Only
2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

39. National Research Laboratory for Conservation of Cultural Property is in

1. Lucknow
2. Bhuvaneswar
3. New Delhi
4. Varanasi

40. Sri Ramakrishna, whose basic teaching stressed

1. 1. The equality of all religions
2. The potential divinity of man
3. Service to man as a way of worshipping God

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 & 3

41. Which is/are matched?

1. Anthropological Survey of India: Head Office at Kolkata
2. National Archives of India: established in Kolkata
3. National Library: established in Kolkata
4. Central Secretariat Library: established in Kolkata

Answer Choices

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 & 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

42. Niche tourism products of India

1. Cruise & Adventure
2. Medical & Wellness
3. Both A & B
4. None of the above

43. Central Statistics Office activities include

1. Compilation of National Accounts & Index of Industrial Production
2. Energy Statics
3. Social and Environment Statistics
4. All the above

44. The index of Industrial Production (IIP) is released as per the Special Data Dissemination Standards (SDDS) norms of

1. IMF
2. World Bank
3. UN
4. Both B & C

45. The salient features of the MPLADS scheme

1. MPLADS is a plan scheme fully funded by Government of India
2. The funds released under the scheme are non-lapsable
3. Nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can recommend works for implementation anywhere in the country
4. If an elected Member of Parliament, finds the need, to contribute MAPLADS funds, to a place outside their State/UT, can recommend eligible works

Which is/are TRUE?

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 3 & 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

46. Which is NOT correct about the following crops in the recent past in India?

1. Wheat – production increasing
2. Pulses – production increasing
3. Rice – production increasing
4. Coarse Cereals – production increasing

47. Which is/are TRUE?

1. Underwater Archaeology (UAW) is the part of the activity of Ministry of Earth Sciences
2. Great Living Chola Temples complex is in the world heritage list of UNESCO

Answer Choices

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both
4. None

48. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana includes

1. Initiatives for Nutritional Security
2. Vidarbha Intensive Irrigation Development Programme
3. Saffron Mission

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 1, 2 & 3
4. None of the Above

49. Sahitya Academy has recognized

1. 20 Languages
2. 24 Languages including English
3. 24 Languages excluding English
4. 28 Languages

50. TWENTY POINT PROGRAMME – 2006 includes

1. Poverty Eradication, Power to People, Support to Farmers
2. Housing for All, Health for All, Education for All
3. Women Welfare, Child Welfare, Labour Welfare

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 only
2. 2 & 3 only
3. 1, 2 & 3
4. None of the Above

Question 51 to 75

51. Which is/are TRUE about India?

1. 19th largest exporter
2. 12th largest importer
3. Both A & B Correct
4. None

52. Assertion (A): India has been pursuing a policy of market diversification in Asia, Latin America and Africa through Focus Market initiatives

Reason(R): There is a realization that continued growth of India requires an expanding domestic market as well as open market outside

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

53. Which is/are TRUE about India’s trade?

1. One of the top five commodities of exports includes petroleum (Crude and Products)
2. One of the top five import items constitutes petroleum (Crude and Products)

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

54. Which is INCORRECT?

1. Twenty-six sites have been designated as Ramsar sites in the Country
2. Eco Task Force Battalions raised by Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change restored degraded sites of limestone mining areas of Mussoorie Hills

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

55. Which is/are TRUE?

1. In the ninth ministerial meeting of WTO, trade facilitation was brought into the agenda mainly by the developing countries.
2. The issue of the rules relating to public stockholding for food security purpose was brought into the WTO agenda through India’s efforts.

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

56. Trade Facilitation Agreement is basically aimed at

1. Simplification of customs procedures
2. Use of electronic payments
3. Risk management techniques
4. Faster clearances at ports

Answer choices

1. A.1&4 Only
2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
4. 1, 2, 3& 4

57. Assertion (A): The market price support/ Minimum Support Price and procurement/stockholding of food grains at MSP are a genuine requirement for India

Reason(R): It is important for developing countries to be able to guarantee some minimum returns to their poor farmers so that they are able to produce enough for themselves and for domestic food security

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

58. Assertion (A): India announced the Duty Free Tariff Preference (DFTP) Scheme for Least Developed Countries LDCs in year 2008

Reason(R): India became the first developing country to extend this facility to Least Developed Countries (LDCs)

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

59. The mother agreement/s on standards and conformity assessment within the WTO is/are

1. Technical Barriers to trade
2. Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures
3. Both
4. None

60. Which is/are NOT TRUE?

1. Southern African Custom Union (SACU) is the oldest Custom Union in the world established in 1820
2. It consists of group of 5 countries, namely, Botswana, Lesotho, Nigeria, Swaziland and South Africa

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

61. The vast rural post office network entrusted with

1. Disbursement of Social Security Schemes
2. Collection of data for compilation of Rural Consumer Price Index (CPI)
3. Both A and C
4. None

62. Which is/are TRUE?

1. The National Policy on Electronics (NPE) 2012 is with the vision to create a globally competitive electronics design and manufacturing (ESDM) industry to meet the country’s needs and serve the international market
2. National e-Governance Plan (NEGP) has 31 Mission Mode Projects (MMPs)

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

63. Which is NOT TRUE?

1. MeghRaj – Cloud Computing at National Level
2. e-Taal – e-transaction analysis of central and state level e-governance projects
3. National Informatics Centre (NIC) – established in 1976
4. NICNET – has institutional linkages only with all the Ministers/ Departments of the Central government

64. Which is/are TRUE?

1. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-IN), CERT-In is the national nodal agency setup under the Information Technology Act 2013, to respond computer security incidents
2. National Cyber Security Policy was released in 2000
3. ‘Chakra’ is a dynamic firewall solution
4. C-MET (Centre for Materials for Electronics Technology) has three centres at Pune, Hyderabad and Thrissur

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 4 Only
2. 3 & 4 Only
3. 2 & 4 Only
4. 1, 2, 3& 4

65. According to National Telecom Policy-2012, 100 per cent rural tele-density by the year

1. 2020
2. 2017
3. 2015
4. None

66. Bharat Broadband Network Limited for execution of the National Optical Fibre Network [NOFN] project is going to connect

1. 50,000 Gram Panchayats
2. 2.50 lakh Gram Panchayats
3. 100 Metro Cities
4. 10 Mega Cities

67. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. The island territories of the Andaman and Nicobar Island, located 450 kilometres away from the mainland
2. The Lakshadweep and Minicoy Island is located about 1300 kilometres away from the mainland

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. none of the above

68. Which are correctly matched? [Region – Importance]

1. Asia Pacific – critical sea lanes
2. Central Asia – anti-piracy operation
3. West Asia – six million Indians
4. Gulf of Aden – energy security

Answer Choices

1. I & II
2. I & III
3. II & IV
4. II & III

69. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Indian Ocean spreads over an area of 68.56 million square kilometres
2. It accounts for transportation of the second largest tonnage of goods in the world
3. Almost 100,000 ships transiting its expanses annually

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 3 only
4. 1 & 3 Only

70. Match (Institution- Location)

1.Indian Military Academy	a.Dehradun
2.Officers Training Academy	b.Chennai
3.College of Military Engineering	c.Gaya
	d.Pune

Answer Choices

	a	b	c	d
A	2	1	3	3
B	3	1	2	1
C	1	2	2	3
D	3	2	2	1

71. The Ordnance Factory Board has 39 factories with two more at Nalanda and Korwa. These places are in the states of

1. UP & Bihar respectively
2. Bihar & UP respectively
3. Bihar & Maharashtra respectively
4. UP & Maharashtra respectively

72. Which is NOT correct?

1. Bharat Electronics Limited – Miniratna
2. Mazagon Dock Limited – Miniratna
3. BEML Limited (BEML) – Miniratna
4. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) – Miniratna

73. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Mahila Samakhya (MS), focus on the Educationally Backward Blocks, process-oriented programme which has demonstrated ways of empowering rural poor and marginalised women
2. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA) launched in 2009, with an aim to ensure Gross Enrolment Ratio [GER] of 100 per cent by 2017 and universal retention by 2020

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

74. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. Universities Grants Commission (UGC) advises the Central and State Governments on the measures necessary for development of higher education
2. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) was to set up one model Degree College in the identified districts where GER (higher education) is equal to National Average

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

75. Which is/are CORRECT?

1. International Standard Book Number (ISBN) is a unique International Publishers Identifier Number
2. Ministry of Human Resource Development introduced ISBN System in India in 1985

Answer Choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

Question 76 to 100

76. Which is/are TRUE?

1. India’s total trade value in 2013-14 is more than 46 lakh crore and having a negative trade balance
2. USA & UAE are important trading partners for India occupying a place within top five destinations of our imports as well as exports
3. Marine products one of the principal commodities of exports experienced better growth and Project goods another principle commodity which suffered in growth in the recent years of India’s trade

Answer Choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 & 3 Only
4. 1, 2 & 3

77. Match the three columns:

Arrangement/AgreementMeaning/DefinitionExample

Arrangement/Agreement	Meaning/Definition	Example
1.Preferential Trading	a.Tariff Liberalisation	I. India – Mercosur
2. Free Trade	b. Elimination of Tariffs	II. India – Srilanka
3. Comprehensive Economic Cooperation/Partnership	c. Integrated Package of Agreements	III. India – Korea

Answer choices

1. 1-b-I, 2-a-II, 3-c-III
2. 1-a-I, 2-b-II, 3-c-III
3. 2-b-III, 3-c-II, 1-a-I
4. 3-a-II, 1-b-III, 2-c-I

78. Which is/are CORRECTLY matched? [Regional Grouping – Members]

1. Gulf Cooperation Council – Saudi Arabia & Kuwait
2. Southern Common Market – Brazil & Uruguay
3. Southern African Customs Union – South Africa & Swaziland
4. Asia Pacific Trade Agreement – Korea & Lesotho

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1, 2 & 3 Only
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

79. Which is TRUE?

1. Primary Level enrolment in education is in decline in the country
2. Middle Level enrolment in education is in decline in the country
3. Both A & B
4. None

80. India is negotiating Broad based Trade and Investment Agreement [BTIA] with

1. EU
2. ASEAN
3. GCC
4. BIMSTEC

81. Which is CORRECT?

1. Total installed power generation capacity of the country in the renewable energy sources sector is higher than nuclear sector
2. Each Ultra Mega Power Projects has a capacity of 1,000 MW

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

82. Assertion (A): India’s natural resources are unevenly distributed in the country

Reason(R): Coal resources are abundant in Northern and North-East region and hydro resources are mainly concentrated in Bihar/Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

83. Which are matched?

1. NTPC Limited – Maharatna Company
2. NHPC Limited – Mini-Ratna Enterprise
3. Power Finance Corporation – Public Financial Institution and Non-Banking Financial Company
4. Rural Electrification Corporation – Public Financial Institution and Non-Banking Financial Company

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 3 & 4
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

84. Production of crude oil was affected in the country due to

1. Environmental factors and bandhs/blockades in Assam
2. Delay in production from wells in Andhra Pradesh
3. Lesser production from wells in Mumbai
4. Poor influx, underperformance of producing wells and less base potential of major fields that affected production of Ahmedabad and Ankleshwar

Which are Correct?

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 3 & 4
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

85. The decrease in natural gas production is due to

1. Decline in production from KG deep-water block
2. Bandhs and blockades in Assam and underperformance of development of new wells

Answer choices

1. 1 Only
2. 2 Only
3. 1 & 2
4. None

86. Which is CORRECT?

1. ONGC Videsh Limited has oil and gas production projects in Russia, Vietnam and Brazil
2. OIL had developed Oil fields of Naharkatiya and Moran in Assam and it has now presence even in Venezuela, Gabon and Iran
3. GAIL has signed an agreement for LNG which has price linkage to gas rather than oil

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 3 Only
4. 1, 2 & 3

87. National Green Tribunal

1. Disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forest
2. Enforcement of any legal right relating to environment and giving relief and compensation for damages to persons and property
3. The tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the code of civil procedure, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice
4. In addition to the Chairperson, judicial and expert members are working in the Tribunal

Which are CORRECT?

1. 1, 2 & 4 Only
2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

88. Which is correct about Indian Oil Corporation?

1. It is the country’s largest commercial enterprise with Maharatna status
2. The Indian Oil Group of companies’ network (crude, petroleum products & Gas) is the largest in the country
3. It has set up subsidiaries in Sri Lanka, Mauritius and the United Arab Emirates
4. All the above

89. Who owns and operate the largest Lube Refinery in the country?

1. BPCL
2. HPCL
3. Joint venture of HPCL & BPCL
4. None of the above

90. Coal deposits are chiefly located in

1. Jharkhand, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal
2. Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra
3. Both A & B
4. None

91. The major deposits of lignite reserves are located in

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Odisha
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Telangana

92. Barsingsar Mine [Lignite] in

1. Odisha
2. Rajasthan
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Gujarat

93. Assertion (A): Renewables are increasingly becoming mainstream and competitive with conventional energy sources

Reason(R): The prices for renewable energy technologies, primarily wind and solar continued to fall in the country

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

94. Which is correct in the installed Capacity?

1. Wind energy > biomass power > small hydropower >solar power
2. Wind energy > small hydropower>biomass power >solar power
3. Biomass power> wind energy> small hydropower >solar power
4. Biomass power> wind energy> solar power >small hydropower

95. The National Action Plan on Climate Change mandates increasing share of renewable power in the electricity mix to

1. 15 per cent by the year 2050
2. 15 per cent by the year 2020
3. 30 per cent by the year 2020
4. 30 per cent by the year 2050

96. Assertion (A): A significant reduction in solar power tariff in the country

Reason(R): Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission adopted Reverse bidding process

1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
3. A is Correct; But not R
4. R is Correct; But not A

97. Family type biogas plants is an important programme, because

1. Reduction in drudgery among the rural women and girls engaged in collection of fuel wood
2. Reduction in the rate of deforestation
3. Providing organic fertilizer

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 & 3 Only
4. 1, 2 & 3

98. Who is/are providing project based assistance for renewable energy programmes in India?

1. World Bank & Asian Development Bank (ADB)
2. United Nations Industrial Development Organization (UNIDO) and United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
3. Global Environment Facility (GEF)

Answer choices

1. 1 & 2 Only
2. 2 & 3 Only
3. 1 & 3 Only
4. 1, 2 & 3

99. Which is NOT matched?

1. Survey of Flora – BSI (Botanical Survey of India) – 1890
2. Survey of Fauna – Zoological Survey of India – 1916
3. Forest Resources and Survey – Forest Survey of India – 1981
4. Fishery resources in the Indian Territorial Waters – Fishery Survey of India (FSI) – 1983

100. Which is INCORRECT?

1. India has a total mangrove cover of 3% of the global mangroves area and 8% of Asia’s mangroves
2. Mangrove vegetation has been reported in all the 12 coastal states/UTs
3. All coastal areas in India are suitable for mangroves
4. All of the above

Answerkey

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