[Mock Test#6] NCERT Class 12 (All Subject): One hundred MCQs for Prelims General Studies Paper-1 Free UPSC Mock test

Question-Papers122 Comments

India Yearbook
  1. Instructions
  2. Q1 to 25
  3. Q26 to 50
  4. Q51 to 75
  5. Q76 to 100
  6. Answerkey for NCERT Class12

Instructions

  • NCERT Class 12 full length 100 questions test Venkat Sir of Pandit Deendayal Petroleum University (PDPU) UPSC Study centre, Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
  • Previous three tests, covered NCERT Class 7, 8, 9, 10 and 11 – all subjects. They’re available at Mrunal.org/Download

Q1 to 25

1. Consider the following statements

  1. Indian census is the largest such exercise in the world
  2. In India census began to be conducted by the British Indian government between 1867-72
  3. Regular ten yearly or decennial censuses have been conducted since 1881
  4. China does not conduct regular census

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

2. Consider the following statements

  1. Girl babies appear to have an advantage over boy babies’ in terms of resistance to disease in infancy
  2. Women have tended to outlive men in most societies so that there are older women than men
  3. Nature seems to produce slightly more female babies than male babies.

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

3. Consider the following statements

  1. Between 1911 and 1921 there was a negative rate of growth of (-0.03%) population in India
  2. In India, since 1961 there has been decrease in the average annual growth rate and decadal growth rate in the Population

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

4. Which are Matched?

  1. Ayyankali – Social Reformer from Kerala
  2. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule – Founder of Satyashodhak Samaj
  3. Savitri Bai Phule – Started a night school for agriculturists and labourers
  4. Iyothee Thass – a prominent Dalit and anti-caste activist

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

5. The Census under the direction of Herbert Risley was particularly important as it sought to collect information on the social hierarchy of caste. This census had taken place in the year of

  1. 1891
  2. 1901
  3. 1911
  4. 1921

6. Consider the following statements

  1. About 85% of the tribal population lives in ‘middle India’, a wide band stretching from Gujarat and Rajasthan in the west to West Bengal and Orissa in the east
  2. The tribal ecological habitats include hills, forests, rural plains and urban industrial areas
  3. Adivasis had always been the oppressed groups as they are now in the country

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 2 &3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

7. Caste Disabilities Removal Act

  1. One of the earliest laws passed to end caste discrimination in 1850
  2. Allowed entry of Dalits to government schools
  3. Disallowed the curtailment of rights of citizens due solely to change of religion or caste

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 2 &3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

8. Match [Location of environmental conflicts – State]

a. Koel-Karo1– Karnataka
b. Nagarhole2– Kerala
c. Plachimada3– Madhya Pradesh
d. Singrauli4– Jharkhand

Answer choices

code1234
A.bcad
B.abcd
C.bcda
D.badc

9. The highest proportion of Buddhists is found in

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Sikkim
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Karnataka

10. Birhor

  1. Tribal group of Jharkhand
  2. They live a nomadic life
  3. They have socialization practices aimed at making children independent

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 2 &3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

11. In people who are highly stressed and severely depressed

  1. Reduced levels of T cells
  2. Reduced levels of natural killer cells
  3. Reduced levels of B cells

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 &3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

12. Studies indicate that abnormal activity by certain neurotransmitters can lead to specific psychological disorders

  1. Anxiety – low activity of the gamma aminobutyric acid [GABA]
  2. Schizophrenia – low activity of dopamine
  3. Depression – to low activity of serotonin

Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. 2 Only
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 2 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

13. Match the Commonly Abused Substances

1. Amphetaminesa- Chocolate
2. Caffeineb– Diet pills
3.  Opioidc- Spray paints
4. Inhalantsd- Cough syrup

Answer choices

code1234
A.bacd
B.cdab
C.cdba
D.badc

14. Consider the following statements aboutYoga

  1. 1.Yoga is an alternative treatment possibility to the conventional drug treatment or psychotherapy
  2. 2.It is an ancient Indian technique detailed in the Ashtanga Yoga of Patanjali’s Yoga Sutras
  3. 3.Yoga is exclusively based on asanas or body posture
  4. 4.University of California, USA has found that Kundalini Yoga is effective in the treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder

Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. 4 Only
  2. 3 Only
  3. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  4. 1 & 2 only

15. The company cannot collect more than the amount of capital as specified in the Memorandum of Association. It is called

  1. Paid-up Capital
  2. Subscribed Capital
  3. Authorised Capital
  4. Issued Capital

16. Objectives of Financial Statements of companies

  1. To provide information about economic resources and obligations of a business
  2. To provide information about the earning capacity of the business
  3. Disclosing accounting policies
  4. Information about activities of business affecting the society

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 3 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

17. Founders of NAM – Who is an odd one?

  1. Josip Broz Tito
  2. Gamal Abdel Nasser
  3. Sukarno
  4. Kenneth Kaunda

18. First Secretary- General of United Nations

  1. Trygve Lie
  2. Dag Hammarskjöld
  3. U Thant
  4. Kurt Waldheim

19. Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. In the disarmament process, Chemical Weapons Convention was signed before the Biological Weapons Convention
  2. The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) of 1968 was an arms control treaty that abolishes nuclear weapons

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

20. Which is/are CORRECT about Antarctica?

  1. It has a limited terrestrial life and a limited productive marine ecosystem
  2. Krill, which is central to marine food chain and upon which other animals are dependent
  3. Deep ice cores provide an important source of information about greenhouse gas concentrations
  4. Since 1959, activities in the area have been limited to scientific research, fishing and tourism

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4

21. Consider the following statements

  1. 1.Generally, Union Territories of India have very high density of population
  2. 2.Share of population to the total population is very small from Himalayan states inspite of these states having fairly large geographical area
  3. 3.A continuous belt of states from west to east in the north-west, north, and north central parts of the country has relatively high growth rate of population than the southern states

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 & 3 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1, 2 & 3
  4. None of the above

22. Some states attract migrants from other states in India – Which are Correct?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Gujarat
  3. Haryana
  4. Uttar Pradesh
  5. Bihar

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 1, 2 & 3 only
  3. 4 & 5 only
  4. 1 & 2 only

23. Consider the following statements

  1. 1.In India, Semi-Clustered Settlements is a rather universal feature and particularly in the northern plains
  2. 2.Dominant community and lower strata of society is clearly visible in Semi-Clustered Settlements

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

24. India has undergone major changes and this has influenced the land-use pattern in the country

  1. Decline in the demarcated area under forest
  2. Culturable wastelands have witnessed decline over time
  3. Decline in land under pastures and grazing lands

Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

25. Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. In the world, India’s share of water resources is higher than its surface area
  2. On the availability of surface water and replenishable groundwater only less than 50 per cent can be put to beneficial uses in India

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

Q26 to 50

26. Identify River Basin R

NCERT Mock Test series

  1. Godavari
  2. Krishna
  3. Kaveri
  4. Mahanadi

27. Irrigation is needed because of spatio-temporal variability in rainfall in the country. The large tracts of the country are deficient. Which are they?

  1. North-western India
  2. Deccan plateau
  3. West Bengal and Bihar

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

28. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of

  1. Damodar & Sone
  2. Mahanadi & Godavari
  3. Both A & B
  4. Damodar, Mahanadi & Godavari only

29. Visvesvaraiya Iron and Steel Works Ltd. (VISL)

  1. Located in coal abundant region
  2. Bhadravati river supplies water to the plant
  3. Iron ore for the plant is obtained from Noamundi and Badam Pahar

Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 2 Only
  4. 1 & 3 only

30. Indira Gandhi Canal is one of the largest canal systems in India

  1. Conceived by Kanwar Sain in 1948 and the canal project was launched in 1958
  2. The canal originates at Harike barrage in Punjab and runs parallel to Pakistan border
  3. All the lift canals of this system originate at the left bank of main canal while all the canals on the right bank of main canal are flow channels

Which is/are correct?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

31. Which is NOT Indian Railways zonal Headquarters

  1. Jabalpur
  2. Bilaspur
  3. Raipur
  4. Jaipur

Answer choices

  1. 4 Only
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4 Only

32.  Match the following

1. Port confronted with the problem of silt accumulationa– Chennai
2. Land-locked harborb- Marmagao
3. Port in Zuari estuaryc– Kolkata
4. Artificial harbour built in 1859d- Visakhapatnam

Answer choices

code1234
A.cdba
B.abcd
C.cdab
D.abdc

33. The chances of survival of young ones is greater in

  1. A.viviparous organisms
  2. oviparous organisms
  3. C.Both A & B
  4. Sometimes in viviparous and Sometimes in oviparous

34. The reproductive events in humans include Gametogenesis, Insemination, Fertilization, Implantation, Gestation and Parturition. In this, formation and development of blastocyst on which phase

  1. Insemination
  2. Fertilization
  3. Implantation
  4. Gestation

35. The human pregnancy lasts 9 months. Following is the embryonic development at various months of pregnancy. Heart =>limbs and digits =>external genital organs => first movements of the foetus and appearance of hair on the head =>eye-lids separate, and eyelashes are formed. In which months heart and first movements in this development

  1. By the end of the second month of pregnancy and during the fifth month
  2. After one month of pregnancy and during the fifth month
  3. After one month of pregnancy and by the end of 12 weeks
  4. By the end of the second month of pregnancy and by the end of 12 weeks

36. Consider the following statements

  1. The genetic material in most of the organisms is DNA and RNA
  2. The chemical structure of a nucleotide of DNA or RNA has two components – a nitrogenous base and phosphate group

Which is/are correct?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

37. Genetic engineering techniques include

  1. Isolate any piece of DNA
  2. Isolate and clone any piece of DNA
  3. Determining DNA sequences
  4. Both B & C

38. Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying similarities in some specific regions in DNA sequence
  2. DNA from every tissue from an individual show the same degree of polymorphism
  3. Satellite DNA show high degree of polymorphism and form the basis of DNA fingerprinting

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

39. Which of the following share similarities in the pattern of bones of forelimbs

  1. Whales
  2. Bats
  3. Cheetah
  4. Human

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

40. Innate immunity is accomplished by providing different types of barriers to the entry of the foreign agents into our body. The examples of innate immunity

  1. Tears from eyes prevent microbial growth
  2. Mucus coating of the epithelium lining in the respiratory tract helps in trapping microbes
  3. Bacteria-infected cells secrete proteins called interferons which protect non-infected cells from further infection

Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

41. Techniques those are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs

  1. Radiography
  2. CT (computed Tomography)
  3. MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

42. Bio-fortification

  1. It is undertaken with the objectives of improving higher levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats in food crops
  2. Bio-fortified rice variety, Atlas 66, having high protein content

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

43. Consider the following statements about Single Cell Protein (SCP)

  1. Microbes are being grown on an industrial scale as source of good protein
  2. Microbes processing plants reduces environmental pollution
  3. Slow rate of biomass production in microbes prevents as one of the alternate sources of proteins for animal and human nutrition

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 & 3 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

44. To introduce alien DNA (recombinant DNA) into host cells it is bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of gold or tungsten known as biolistics or gene gun. This is most suitable for

  1. Animal cell
  2. Plant cell
  3. Both A & B
  4. Not suitable for any cell

45. Genetically Modified Organisms

  1. 1.Prevents early exhaustion of fertility of soil
  2. 2.Intolerant to abiotic stresses
  3. 3.Pest-resistant and enhanced nutritional value
  4. 4.Help to reduce post harvest losses

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. All the above

46. “We should begin to work in that spirit and in course of time all these angularities of the majority and minority communities, the Hindu community and the Muslim community… will vanish… You may belong to any religion or caste or creed – that has nothing to do with the business of the State”

  1. Ambedkar
  2. Maula Abul Kalam Azad
  3. Mohammad Ali Jinnah
  4. Jawaharlal Nehru

47. Consider the following statements

  1. Razakars, a para-military force of princely state of Junagarh prevented its accession to India
  2. Manipur was the first part of India to hold an election based on universal adult franchise
  3. Sheikh Mohammad Abdullah was appointed as Prime Minister of J&K immediately after its accession with India in 1947

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

48. Which is/are CORRECT on the following?

  1. 1.Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal in the country where there are movements demanding new boundaries
  2. 2.Boundaries demarcation between Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand on administrative and political grounds
  3. 3.Boundaries demarcation between Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh by geographical zones
  4. 4.Boundaries demarcation between Telangana and Andhra Pradesh on the basis of a separate regional culture

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3 Only

49. Statement 1: Santhals did revolt against the colonial state in 1855-56

Statement 2: British failed to subdue the Santhals and transform them into settled agriculturists

Statement 3: British persuaded Paharias to settle in the foothills of Rajmahal

  1. Statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct and 2 and 3 are explanation to 1
  2. Statement 1 is correct and 2 and 3 are NOT correct
  3. Statements 1, 2 & 3 are NOT correct
  4. Statements 1& 3 are correct and Statement 2 NOT correct

50. Consider the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi

  1. First major public appearance was at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in1916
  2. In 1918 he intervened in a labour dispute in Kheda demanding better working conditions for the textile mill workers
  3. From 1924 to 1928 he focused on his social reform work
  4. He as a representative of Congress, a party which represented all of India, attended first Round Table Conference in the latter part of 1931

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. All the above
  2. 1 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1 & 4 Only

Q51 to 75

51. It was in ‘these years’ that the Muslim League began to make a mark in the Punjab and Sind provinces where it had previously had scarcely any presence. This was the period of

  1. Non-cooperation
  2. Civil disobedience
  3. Quit India
  4. Cabinet Mission to Constituent Assembly

52. Consider the following statements about Mughals

  1. Mughal emperors translated Sanskrit texts the Mahabharata and the Ramayana into Turkish
  2. The nobility under the Mughals was a composite one comprising Iranis, Turanis, Afghans, Rajputs and Deccanis
  3. The capital cities of the Mughals frequently shifted during the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries
  4. The keeping of exact and detailed records was a major concern of the Mughal administration

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. All the above
  2. 1 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1 & 4 Only

53. The rulers of Vijayanagara are called

  1. Gajapati
  2. Ashvapati
  3. Narapati
  4. All of the above

54. Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. Groups of highly mobile, peasant pastoralists (kunbis) provided the backbone of the Khalsa
  2. Under a number of able leaders in the eighteenth century, the Marathas organized themselves into a number of bands called jathas, and later on misls

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

55. The Dandi Salt March was notable for

  1. It was this event that first brought Mahatma Gandhi to world attention
  2. It was the first nationalist activity in which women participated in large numbers
  3. It forced upon the British the realisation that their Raj would not last forever, and that they would have to devolve some power to the Indians

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 3 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

56. The Lucknow Pact

  1. In 1916 there was an understanding between the Congress and the Muslim League
  2. The pact provided a joint political platform for the Moderates, Extremists and the Muslim League

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

57. Statement 1: Congress and Muslim League had won equal number of seats in the United Provinces province in 1937

Statement 2: In the United Provinces the Muslim League wanted to form a joint government with the Congress in 1937

Statement 3: Congress rejection convinced the League that if India remained united then Muslims would find it difficult to gain political power

  1. Statements 1, 2 & 3 are correct and 1 and 2 are explanation to 3
  2. Statement 1 is NOT correct and Statements 2 and 3 are correct
  3. Statements 1, 2 & 3 are NOT correct
  4. Statements 1& 2 are correct and Statement 3 NOT correct

58. Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. Muslim League was formed as a reaction to Hindu Mahasabha
  2. Arya Samaj, a hindu reform organisation of the late nineteenth and early twentieth century’s degraded modern education in the sciences and promoted Vedic learning

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

59. Chief Draughtsman of the Constitution

  1. K.M. Munshi
  2. S. N. Mukherjee
  3. B. N. Rau
  4. A. K. Aiyar

60. In the Constituent Assembly

1. Jaipal Singh– Representative of the Tribals
2. N.G. Ranga– A Socialist
3. Somnath Lahiri– A Communist member
4. Pocker Bahadur– Representative of Minority Community

Which is/are MATCHED?

  1. All the above
  2. 1 & 3 Only
  3. 2 & 4 Only
  4. None of the above

61. Consider the following statements about Babasaheb Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar

  1. Founding President of the Congress Socialist Party
  2. Minister in Nehru’s first cabinet after Independence
  3. Resigned in 1951 due to differences over the Hindu Code Bill
  4. Adopted Buddhism in 1956, with thousands of followers

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. All the above
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. None of the above

62. A section of the big industrialists got together in 1944 and drafted a joint proposal for setting up a planned economy in the country. This Plan was called as

  1. Birla Plan
  2. Bombay Plan
  3. Plan of Corporate Houses
  4. Kamaraj Plan

63. According to Article 51 of the Indian Constitution State shall endeavour to

  1. 1.Promote international peace and security
  2. 2.Maintain just and honourable relations between nations
  3. 3.Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized people with one another
  4. 4.Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 1 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

64. Tashkent Agreement was signed between

  1. India’s Indira Gandhi and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan
  2. India’s Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistan’s General Ayub Khan
  3. India’s Lal Bahadur Shastri and Pakistan’s Zulfikar Ali Bhutto
  4. India’s Indira Gandhi and Pakistan’s Zulfikar Ali Bhutto

65. Assertion: India signed a 20-year Treaty of Peace and Friendship with the Soviet Union in 1971

Reason: Henry Kissinger, the adviser to the US President Richard Nixon, made a secret visit to China via Pakistan in 1971   and US-Pakistan-China axis was developed

  1. A & R are correct; R is correct explanation for A
  2. A & R are correct; But, R is not-correct explanation for A
  3. A is Correct; But not R
  4. R is Correct; But not A

66. Which is NOT matched?

  1. Loknayak Jayaprakash Narayan – Leader of Bhoodan Movement
  2. Charu Majumdar – Leader of the Naxalbari uprising
  3. Chaudhary Charan Singh – First Prime Minister belonging to a non-Congress party
  4. None of the Above

67. Consider the following statements about background to emergency (1975)

  1. The economic condition in the country did not improve much after 1971-72 and a high level of inflation
  2. The split in the Congress had sharpened the divisions between Indira Gandhi and her opponents
  3. There was a railway strike in1974
  4. Allahabad High Court passed a judgment declaring Indira Gandhi’s election to the Lok Sabha invalid

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 2 & 4 Only
  2. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  3. 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4 Only

68. In 1986 a peace agreement was signed between Rajiv Gandhi and Laldenga. This accord proved a turning point in the history of

  1. Nagaland
  2. Mizoram
  3. Manipur
  4. Tripura

69. Which Schedule of the Constitution allows different tribes complete autonomy of preserving their practices and customary laws?

  1. Third Schedule
  2. Sixth Schedule
  3. Ninth Schedule
  4. Twelfth Schedule

70. Consider the following statements about Mandal Commission

  1. This commission was officially known as the Second Backward Classes Commission
  2. This Commission differentiated backward classes and backward castes
  3. In 1990, the National Front government decided to implement one of the recommendations pertaining to reservations for OBCs in jobs in the central government and its undertakings
  4. The decision for reservations to OBCs challenged in the Supreme Court in the case of St. Stephen’s College Vs University of Delhi

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 1 & 3 Only
  4. All the above

71. The human eye (retina) with the sensitivity to detect electromagnetic waves within a small range of the electromagnetic spectrum. Radiation belonging to this region of the spectrum is

  1. Between Ultraviolet and Infrared
  2. Between Ultraviolet and X-rays
  3. Between Infrared and Micro-waves
  4. Between X-rays and Gamma rays

72. With respect to Sun, an atmospheric refraction creates

  1. Advance sunrise
  2. Delayed sunset
  3. Both A & B
  4. It will not create any difference

73. In Doppler Effect red shift means

  1. Increase in wavelength
  2. Source moves away from the observer
  3. Decrease in wavelength
  4. Source moving towards the observer

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 2 Only
  4. 2 & 3 Only

74. Consider the following statements

  1. Interference and diffraction effects exist for longitudinal waves and transverse waves
  2. Polarization phenomena are special to transverse waves like light waves

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

75. Photoelectric effect (A photocell) is used in the

  1. Electronic ignition circuits
  2. Automatic door opener
  3. Detection of traffic law defaulters
  4. Reproduction of sound in motion pictures
  5. In the television camera for scanning and telecasting scenes

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 4 & 5 Only
  3. 1, 2, 3 & 5 Only
  4. All of the above

Q76 to 100

76. Consider the following statements about Neutrinos

  1. These particles are emitted from the nucleus along with the γ-decay during the radioactive decay process
  2. These are neutral particles with very little or no mass

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

77. Consider the following statements

  1. Neutrinos detection is extremely simple and their presence was observed long back
  2. Neutrinos interact only very weakly with matter and can even penetrate the earth without being absorbed

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

78. Moderator in nuclear reactors

  1. Heavy nuclei for slowing down fast neutrons
  2. Commonly used are water, heavy water (D2O) and graphite
  3. Indian reactors mostly use graphite as moderator

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

79. The fusion reaction in the sun is a multi-step process in which

  1. Hydrogen being the fuel and helium the ashes
  2. Helium being the fuel and Hydrogen being the ashes
  3. Sometimes Hydrogen as fuel and Sometimes Helium as fuel
  4. Oxygen as fuel and Ozone as ashes

80. Photoelectric effect

  1. The phenomenon of emission of protons by metals when illuminated by light of suitable frequency
  2. Involves conversion of light energy into electrical energy and follows the law of conservation of energy
  3. It is an instantaneous process
  4. It is the unique feature of ultraviolet light rays

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 & 4 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. All the above

81. Consider the following statements about Gross Domestic Product

  1. Expenditure method, Product method, Income method are the three ways to calculate GDP
  2. Nominal GDP is GDP evaluated at a set of constant market prices

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

82. Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. Base Rate is the minimum rate for all loans, banks are not permitted to resort to any lending below the Base Rate
  2. The rate at which banks park their short-term excess liquidity with the RBI is called Repo (Repurchase) rate
  3. In the marginal standing facility, banks can borrow funds up to certain percentage of their net demand and time liabilities and this can be within the statutory liquidity ratio

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

83. Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. Banks lend out their reserves to investors is called as borrowing rate
  2. The rate of interest offered by the bank to deposit holders is called lending rate

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

84. High Powered Money consists of

  1. Notes and coins in circulation with the public
  2. Vault cash of commercial banks
  3. Deposits held by the Government of India with RBI
  4. Deposits held by the Commercial Banks with RBI

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4 Only

85. Fiscal Deficit

  1. Introduced in 1986 on the recommendation of Sukhmoy Chakravarty committee
  2. Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing
  3. A large share of revenue deficit in fiscal deficit indicates that consumption expenditure is more than investment expenditure

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 2 & 3 Only
  2. 1 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

86. Transfer payments

  1. Remittances
  2. Gifts
  3. Grants

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 2 & 3 Only
  2. 1 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

87. Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. When income increases there is a depreciation of the domestic currency
  2. A rise in the interest rates at home often leads to depreciation of the domestic currency
  3. A country whose aggregate demand grows faster than the rest of the world’s normally finds its currency depreciating

Answer choices

  1. 2 & 3 Only
  2. 1 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

88. Avoidance of restrictions on current payments discussed in the

  1. Article V of the Articles of Agreement of the IMF
  2. Article VI of the Articles of Agreement of the IMF
  3. Article VII of the Articles of Agreement of the IMF
  4. Article VIII of the Articles of Agreement of the IMF

89. Money with no intrinsic value is called

  1. Cheap Money
  2. Dear Money
  3. Fiat Money
  4. Hot Money

90. Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. Revaluation – Decrease in the exchange rate
  2. National Income – Net National Product at market price
  3. Statutory Liquidity Ratio – Fraction required by RBI
  4. Sterilisation – Intervention by the monetary authority

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 3 Only
  2. 2 & 4 Only
  3. All the above
  4. None of the above

91. Among the following which are bactericidal [killing effect] antibiotics?

  1. Erythromycin
  2. Tetracycline
  3. Penicillin
  4. Chloramphenicol

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 Only
  4. 1 & 4 Only

92. Which is/are in dilute aqueous solution is weak antiseptic for eyes

  1. Iodoform
  2. Iodine
  3. Boric acid

Answer choices

  1. 2 Only
  2. 3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 2 & 3 Only

93.  Birth control pills

  1. Synthetic estrogen derivatives only
  2. Synthetic progesterone derivatives only
  3. A mixture of synthetic estrogen and progesterone derivatives
  4. B & C

94. Which of the following are Disinfectants?

  1. 0.2 per cent solution of phenol
  2. One percent solution of phenol
  3. Chlorine
  4. Sulphur dioxide

Answer choices

  1. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  2. 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 2, 3 & 4 Only

95. Consider the following statements about antiseptics

  1. Antiseptics are the chemicals which either kill or prevent the growth of microorganisms
  2. Antiseptics are applied to the living tissues
  3. Antiseptics are applied like antibiotics
  4. Same substances can act as an antiseptic as well as disinfectant by varying the concentration

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1, 2 & 4 Only
  2. 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 2, 3 & 4 Only

96. Which is/are Natural polymers?

  1. Rayon
  2. Nylon
  3. Cellulose

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 2 & 3 Only

97. Match the following

1. Neoprenea- Manufacture of rain coats
2. PHBVb- orthopaedic devices & biodegradable polymers
3. PVCc- conveyor belts & gaskets
4. Urea-formaldehyle Resind- making unbreakable cups

Answer choices

code1234
A.bacd
B.cbad
C.bcda
D.cbda

98. Consider the following statements about Vitamins

  1. 1.They are certain inorganic compounds which required in small amounts in our diet
  2. 2.Most of the vitamins cannot be synthesised in our body
  3. 3.Plants can synthesise almost all of them
  4. 4.Excess of vitamins is important for healthy life

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 1 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4

99. Match the following

1.Formaldehydea- known for their odours and flavours
2.Acetaldehydeb- polymers and drugs
3.Benzaldehydec- perfumery and in dye industries
4.Aldehydes and ketonesd- to preserve biological specimens and to prepare Bakelite

Answer choices

code1234
A.cdba
B.dbca
C.dcab
D.bdac

100. Match: Chemical – Use – Harmful Effect

1. Dichloromethanea. Freon productionI. Direct contact can burn the cornea
2. Chloroformb. Paint removerII. Damage to the liver (phosgene formation)
3. Iodoformc. Refrigerants and propellantsIII. objectionable smell
4. Carbon tetrachlorided. AntisepticIV. make the heart beat irregularly

Answer choices

A. 1-b-II, 2-a- I, 3-d-III,4-c-IV

B. 1-b-I, 2-a- II, 3-d-III,4-c-IV

C. 1-a-I, 2-b- II, 3-c-III,4-d-IV

D. 1-d-I, 2-c- II, 3-b-III,4-a-IV

Answerkey for NCERT Class12

Free UPSC Mock Test series NCERT Class12

Hints for Selected Answers

  • 3. 1971
  • 6. NOT; Gond kingdoms were in Central India
  • 12. 2.Schizophrenia – Excess activity of dopamine
  • 14. includes breathing practices or pranayama
  • 15. 1. Clustered Settlements
  • 25. 1. India accounts for about 2.45 per cent of world’s surface area, 4 per cent of the world’s water resources 60%
  • 33. Embryonal protection and care are better
  • 36. 1. DNA; 2. Three components – pentose sugar also
  • 40. 3. Virus
  • 46. Mohammad Ali Jinnah, Presidential Address to the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan at Karachi, 11 August 1947
  • 50. Ahmedabad; Second
  • 52. Persian;
  • 54. Maratha Army; Sikhs
  • 57. Congress had won an absolute majority in the province, so it rejected the offer
  • 58. Muslim League – 1906 Hindu Mahasabha – 1915
  • 76. Electron or positron-Beta decay; Alpha decay-a helium nucleus; γ-decay in which high energy photons are emitted
  • 78. Light Nuclei; Heavy Water
  • 80. Emission of electrons by metals; even in the visible light
  • 88. No member shall, without the approval of the Fund, impose restrictions on the making of payments and transfers for current international transactions.
  • 95. Antiseptics are not ingested like antibiotics

Mrunal recommends

  1. (free) NCERT, NIOS, TN-Books
  2. Environment by ShankarIAS
  3. Indian Polity M.Laxmikanth (Hindi | English)
  4. Art & Culture by Nitin Singhania (Hindi | English)
  5. Spectrum: Modern History (Hindi | English)
  6. Bipin Chandra: Post Independence
  7. Fast-track to Arithmetic Rajesh Verma
  8. MK Pandey’s Analytical Reasoning
  9. Disha’s Topicwise Paperset (Hindi | English)
  10. School Atlas
  11. Mains: Language papers
  1. (free) NCERT, NIOS, TN-Books 4 History,Geo,Sci
  2. Indian Polity M.Laxmikanth (Hindi | English)
  3. Spectrum: Modern History (Hindi | English)
  4. Maths: Quantam CAT Sarvesh Kumar
  5. Objective General English SP Bakshi
  6. Word Power made Easy -Norman Lowe
  7. Topic wise Solved Paperset by Disha


So far 122 Comments posted

  1. luv

    sir.. missing your jack sparrow type c.affairs article..
    atleast update recent XL file.. topic list wali..

    1. neeraj

      Hi friends nd hello sir .. sir puchna yeh tha ki jo epfo ki vacancy nikali h upsc ne i mean apfc ki recruitment usme exam bhi hai ya direct interview h plz reply bcz notice m exam kahi nhi diya hua. Shortlist ki baat ki hui h

      1. vishwajeet pratap singh

        Dear Neeraj,

        In case the no. of candidates are higher, then there will be written exam otherwise direct interview.

        Last year the same notification was published and their was not mention about the written exam, however total no. of applicant exceeding 5 lakhs thats why UPSC conducts a written exam for shortlisting the candidates for the interview.

        Regards,

        Vishwajeet
        +91-9979448785

  2. T

    @A
    I don’t use any social networking app.
    Just g-mail.
    Try to post your e-mail here…
    Now or later…

  3. Veerendra Nayak

    Thank u for helping us to prepare for competitive exams. The informations given here are really useful.

  4. aman agrawal

    Sir.. We are eagerly waiting for interview of toppers of upsc c.s 2014 . We expect u to post it soon.

  5. Mandark

    There has been an unusual delay from Mrunal Sir this time since the time results have come. There is no update, no interview nothing. I was wondering if there is something wrong with him. Can anyone in touch with him throw some light on whether he is fine or not?

  6. A

    I met him on Sunday.
    He was OK at that time.
    Will ask from Venkat sir.
    He must be knowing.

  7. A

    Yes bro! Hope you try for the same!

  8. A

    @T
    Yes bro! Hope you try for the same!

  9. Dk

    Very very congratulations mam for your wonderful success

  10. T

    @A
    Yeah I would do it if there is no other option …
    [This is not bro.!
    sis. Here. 🙂

    1. kaushal

      u frm pdpu? i mean joined class at papu for upsc?

  11. T

    Yeap.
    Chem. Optional??

    1. kaushal

      no chemistry .. i am commerce graduate . i am just asking abt pdpu study center … review ….
      i am targeting cse 2016 nt this year …

  12. Avisek

    Mrunal sir,
    NO Update !!!!!!!!!!!?????????????????????//

  13. Mandark

    Yes please …and do post the information here. The silence has been long and quite unusual.

  14. kamlesh

    mrunal sir I hope u r fine!
    sir this is my first attempt. n I was waiting for ur articles …but till now there is no update.sir koi or website to nhi chala rahe…

  15. NS

    We are missing you Mrunal sir!!! Where are you?

  16. RANDEEP KUMAR

    i want to be an ias officer. how can i prepare thoroughliiy with a to z information.

  17. संकल्प

    थोड़ी तरस खाइये,
    अब दरश दिखाइए!!

    आपके दर्शन को अधीर हैं,
    बिना ‘गुरु’ के कौन वीर हैं?

  18. Takla Makan

    एकलव्य।

  19. T

    @A
    You said- will ask from venkat sir..
    Are you from pdpu????

  20. Shru

    The answer given for Q. 43 seems to be wrong it should be c . microbes have a large rate of biomass production at least according to the internet . please do explain if I’m wrong

  21. संकल्प

    एकलव्य ने अपने दाहिने हाथ का अँगूठा द्रोणाचार्य को गुरु दक्षिणा में दे दिया था!!

  22. astha

    sir plz provide ans keys of capf exam 2015…paper 1..:)

  23. Amitesh kantilal kapure

    What is preference book,and shortcut tecnique.

  24. sowjanya sharma

    Sir…missing u
    plz cum back..
    Hopind evrythng s fine on ur side 🙁

    1. Piku

      Sir is absolutely fine,
      he is very very busy at present.
      Making students interact with toppers at Pdpu and spipa,
      and other stuffs

  25. Yogesh

    Sir please upload current affairs article.

  26. sajan

    sir, are u going to provide capf exam answer key this time ?

  27. Rajeev

    mrunal sir
    kindly upload the economy survey in pdf also.
    that will be great help for us.

  28. sowjanya sharma

    Sir if any prblm..plz let us nw
    any financial issus . V vl sure hlp u to maintain wbste

    anythng fr u…plz cum back. Ds s vry crucial tym nd ur presence s needed. U r grooming fr battle since 1 yr nd bfre da xam tym..u left us :-(.
    Sir plz …. waiting for u

  29. rajeev

    mrunal sir
    please do upload economy survey in pdf as u have done in past.
    battle day is coming closer so we need ur support…..

  30. mohit

    Question No.85 the statement “Fiscal deficit is the difference between the government’s total expenditure and its total receipts excluding borrowing”(12th NCERT Introducing Macroeconomics, page no 65 chapter 5th) is correct but in the answer list it is mentioned as incorrect

  31. Agastaya

    It would be great if all of the aspirants try a pre-NCERT test and then take a post test after learning to identify the gaps and the lag. Would be a good learning experience trying the set of questions

  32. umesh Kumar

    Hello sir, I had completed my B Tech mechanical engineering in 2007. Now I m working in company on gd salary but I hv no self satisfaction, so I want preparation for civil exam. Pls give me some tips and tell it is right or wrong . What is optional subjects good for me.

  33. suhailnabi

    Anybody here to provide me Gaurav aggarwal’s notes
    plzzz
    thanks in advance!

  34. pratiksha

    Hello venkat sir,
    May u can download mock test series of paper-2 csat also,becoz we are getting perfect in g.s section but lacking behind in paper-2,we cant ignore it becoz after qualifying paper-2 with 33% marks then only paper-1 is going to check.
    So please download csat mock series for the IAS PRELIUM
    Its an request to u sir

  35. pratiksha

    Sir aapne india year book se jo bhi questions prepare kiye hai.plz woh questions kaun se page number se bnaya h use mention kariye.i know its not the time to take a reading of whole book,atleast we can see the page number n take a read of particular topic n go through it.
    Reason behind keeping my word is that we cant depend on only option as given in question i think that stil we all r having time to take a one read of that particular topic where the question arise.
    As we know upsc touches this section also in the preparation of ias pre paper.
    I wil be thankful to you sir

  36. Vinay Kumar

    Sir am studying bsc agriculture 3year I am interested in preparing for civils (IAS) please kindly send me your suggestion how to prepare and books I need to choose for preparation……

  37. Shubham Tiwari

    Sir G’S mains me NCERT K alawa or kon c books faydemnd rahengi Hindi Medium se……??

    1. chetan mittal

      sir yh sb hindi medium walo k liye b uplabdh karwane ki kosis kre

  38. Anmol

    Sir
    thanks for the mock tests they really help me a lot
    its a request can you please provide some mock tests on current related matters
    specially related budget, eco survey, environment and more

    it will really help me and every one, pls reply as i would be waiting for the same.

  39. Anvit

    Thanks a lot sir !.
    Very helpful

  40. Preethi

    sir, suggest me clear topics to prepare history, geography for prelims 2016 abi mein NCERT books bhi padrahin hoon lekin mujhe acchhi book nahi milraha hai. pls aap kuch achi books refer kijiye sir.

  41. jay

    Join our Being IAS group messages us, on whatsapp 07870892943. We share mock test and explanation.

  42. Jay rajput

    Join us where you will get all materials even mrunal’s best mock test in PDF. Just message through whatsapp 07870892943.

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