[Mock Test#8] Full Length General Studies Prelims Paper with 100 MCQs by Venkat Sir

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Pavan Kumar
  1. Prologue
  2. Question 1 to 25
  3. Question 26 to 50
  4. Question 51 to 75
  5. Question 76 to 100
  6. Answerkey

Prologue

  • Earlier, Venkat sir had prepared topicwise mock tests from India yearbook 2015 and NCERTs. They’re available at Mrunal.org/Download
  • Now, here’s the first full length (100MCQ) test.

Question 1 to 25

1. Organs help in the elimination of excretory wastes of human body: Which is NOT matched?

  1. Kidneys – Urea
  2. Lungs – CO2 (18 litres/day) + Water
  3. Liver – Cholesterol
  4. Skin – Lactic acid

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. None of the Above

2. Passage of ova through the female reproductive tract is facilitated by the

  1. Amoeboid movement
  2. Ciliary movement
  3. Muscular movement
  4. All the above

3.  Which is MATCHED?

  1. Visual acuity (resolution) is the greatest – Hair cells
  2. Auditory Receptors – Fovea
  3. 8th, 9th and 10th ribs – Floating Ribs
  4. 11th and 12th ribs – False Ribs

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. None of the Above

4. Consider the following statements about: THYMUS – Which are TRUE?

  1. It is associated with cell-mediated immunity
  2. It is associated with humoral immunity
  3. It is degenerated in old individuals

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 3 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

5.  Consider the following statements about autoimmune disorder/ disease – Which are TRUE?

  1. Immune system does not distinguish between healthy tissue and antigens
  2. Immune system distinguish between healthy tissue and antibodies
  3. Chance for Rheumatoid arthritis
  4. The body attacks self-cells

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 3 & 4 Only

6. The pre-Vedic Harappa culture bequeathed to later times

  1. Sacred animals and trees
  2. The Mother Goddess
  3. Personal cleanliness

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 3 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

7. Explanations to the failure of the defenders of India to resist ancient and medieval invasions – Which are TRUE?

  1. Caste system – armies only of Kshatriyas
  2. Less mobile Indian army
  3. Archaic in their equipment
  4. Absence of better-trained cavalry

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 1, 2 &3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 3 & 4 Only

8. Which one of the following dynasties of India adopted a maritime policy prominently i.e. expanding their power by sea?

  1. Cholas
  2. Guptas
  3. Mauryas
  4. Pandyas

9. The consequence/s of Shah Jahan’s rebellion was/were

  1. Mughal Empire was distracted for four years
  2. Resulted in the loss of Qandhar
  3. Emboldened the Deccanis to recover the territories
  4. Made monarch (Jahangir) to yield for power transfer

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 3 & 4 Only

10. The importance of Bhagavata Purana is

  1. Helped the Tamils to understand Sanskrit
  2. Helped the Muslim scholars to understand Hinduism
  3. Helped in the spread of Bhakti movement in North India
  4. Music and Art of Harappa became prominent in South India

11. Which of the following rivers having water disputes tribunal?

  1. Vansadhara
  2. Mahadayi/Mandovi
  3. Ravi & Beas
  4. Chambal

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 3 & 4 Only

12. Consider the following statements – Which is NOT correct?

  1. Indo-Bangladesh Joint River Commission (JRC) has been functioning since 1972
  2. Treaty on Sharing of Ganga/Ganges water at Farakka, was signed 1996
  3. As per the 1996 treaty lean period, from 1st January to 31st may every year and the validity of treaty is 30 years
  4. None of the above

13. The criteria generally adopted for specification of a community as a Scheduled Tribe

  1. Spelt out in the Article 366 of the Constitution
  2. Spelt out in the Article 342 of the Constitution
  3. Both A & B
  4. Not spelt out in the constitution

14. In the rank and precedence order as approved by President who is in lower category

  1. Chairperson, Union Public Service Commission
  2. Chief Election Commissioner
  3. Comptroller & Auditor General of India
  4. Attorney General of India

15. Swachh Bharat Mission – Which is CORRECT?

  1. It is implemented by Minister of Drinking Water and Sanitation
  2. Swachh Bharat to become a reality by 2019 and Swachchata Doot (messenger) for each Gram Panchayat in the country
  3. The mission aims to triple the growth percentage of toilet from present 3% to 10% by 2019
  4. All the above

16. Collaboration between Indian and Sri Lankan petroleum firms to make which place as a regional energy hub

  1. Batticaloa
  2. Trincomalee
  3. Galle
  4. Colombo

17. Consider the following statements – Which is/are correct?

  1. Twitter is an online social networking service founded before the Facebook
  2. Third most followed leader on Twitter is Pope Francis
  3. External Affairs Minister Sushma Swaraj is the most followed Foreign Minister on Twitter

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 3 Only

18. Which is MATCHED?

StrategyTarget Country
5 S MantraANTRAMyanmar
Cricket diplomacyUnited Kingdom
Hometown diplomacyJapan
Indian Ocean diplomacyFiji

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  2. 1 & 3 Only
  3. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  4. None of the above

19. India is a party to Intellectual Property in respect of Integrated Circuits which is governed by

  1. Budapest Treaty
  2. Berne Convention
  3. Washington Treaty
  4. Paris Convention

20. A ranking of destinations for attractiveness to foreign investors has placed India at the top among 110 countries. This is with respect to

A. World Economic ForumGlobal Competitiveness Report
B. World BankDoing Business rankings
C. Daniel Altman in Foreign Policy magazineBaseline Profitability Index
D. Standard and PoorSovereign debt ratings

21. Which is NOT correct?

  1. Thar is an excellent example of desertification of ancient alluvial plains
  2. The sands of the Thar are moving eastward and invading areas of western Uttar Pradesh and northwestern Madhya Pradesh which were once very fertile but are now losing out to the advancing sands
  3. Thar consist of two parts, the desert proper or Bagar and the semi-desert known as Marusthali
  4. Thal is also known as the Desert of the Indus

22. Match

1. Aravalli Rangea. Granite-gneisses
2. Malwa Plateaub. Sandstone
3. Vindhyan Rangec. Lava Rocks
4. Ranchi Plateaud. Crystalline rocks

Answer choices

Code1234
A.abcd
B.dcba
C.abdc
D.dcab

23. Consider the following statements about Eastern Ghats – Which is NOT correct?

  1. It starts from the Mahanadi in Orissa and ends at the Vaigai in Tamil Nadu
  2. Southern portion only exhibits a true mountain character
  3. Godavari Gorge is formed by this mountain system
  4. None of the above

24. Consider the following statements – Which are NOT correct?

  1. Alluvial Soils are formed on parent materials transported by different agencies like water, ice gravity and wind
  2. Lateritic soils are well developed on the summits and upper horizon is rich in silica
  3. Dark coloured surface horizon is the evidence of basaltic nature of Tarai soils
  4. One of the main features of Red soils is that, they are clayey in texture

Answer choices

  1. None of the above
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4

25. The Soil which is having only A-C horizons in the profile

  1. Red Soil
  2. Alluvial Soil
  3. Black Soil
  4. None of the above

Question 26 to 50

26. Consider the following statements about Poverty Incidence in India

  1. Tendulkar Committee (2009) and Rangarajan Committee (2014) both estimated about the level of poverty in India
  2. The reduction in poverty was recognized by Tendulkar but not by Rangarajan and hence there is a difference about poverty in India
  3. In reduction, there is no uniformity in reduction at the state level and all sections of the population have not been benefitted by high growth rates

Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 1 & 3
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 2 Only

27. Consider the following statements about migration in India

  1. In India, rural to rural migration is higher among females than males
  2. In India, urban to rural migration is higher among females than males
  3. In India, urban to urban migration is higher among females than males

Which is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 1 & 3
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 2 Only

28. Aggregate Measure of Support [AMS]-Which is CORRECT?

  1. The WTO method of computing the indicator for domestic support
  2. It is for the Uruguay Round Agreement on Agriculture
  3. Support considered under WTO classification as trade-distorting
  4. All the above

29. Consider the following statements

  1. In India, there is emergence of chronic non-communicable diseases with significant presence of communicable diseases
  2. In India, rural-urban variation is higher than inter-state variation in the health
  3. Health models like Kerala and Tamil Nadu force private hospitals to reduce price and improve quality

Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. 1, 2 & 3
  2. 1 & 3
  3. 2 & 3
  4. 2 Only

30. States having better sex ratio

  1. Chattisgarh > Odisha> Tamilnadu
  2. Tamilnadu >Chattisgarh > Odisha
  3. Chattisgarh > Tamilnadu > Odisha
  4. Tamilnadu > Odisha>Chattisgarh

31. Which of the following are CORRECT?

  1. It is reported that man-made CO2 emissions throughout human history constitute less-than total naturally emitted CO2 from the mantle of the earth during geological history
  2. Natural reasons for rise in the global temperature include the eleven-year solar cycle, volcanic activities and El-Nino Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
  3. Emissions such as sulfur dioxide (SO2) and aerosols have a net cooling effect on the globe
  4. Under Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), the developed countries could partly meet their binding emissions targets through credits earned by sponsoring GHG reducing projects in developing countries

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 4 Only
  2. 1 & 4 Only
  3. 2 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

32. Which of the following statements are CORRECT?

  1. If global warming occurs as predicted, agriculture and water resources will be severely affected in India
  2. It was found that in the last 90 years there has been consistent rising in temperature in India
  3. India is implementing the ambitious voluntary domestic goal of reducing the emission intensity of its GDP by 20 to 25 per cent by 2020 compared with 1990 level
  4. India’s carbon market is the highest in the world and it is first Asian country to do so in its Multi Commodity Exchange

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. None of the Above

33.

TreatmentPollutants RemovalEquipment/Process
1. PrimaryI. Biological contenta. Activated sludge and filters
2. SecondaryII. That settles or floatsb. Carbon absorption and neutralization
3. TertiaryIII. Suspended solids, refractory organics and toxic componentsc. Clarifiers and oil – water separator devises

Answer choices

  1. 1-II-c, 2-I-b, 3-III-a
  2. 1-II-c, 2-I-a, 3-III-b
  3. 1-I-a, 2-II-b, 3-III-c
  4. 1-III-a, 2-II-b, 3-I-c

34. In India, annually huge quantities of nutrients are lost during crop production cycle. Which one is facing maximum loss in the following nutrients?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Phosphorus
  3. Potassium
  4. Iron

35. The lion-tailed macaque – Macaca silenus – is a primate endemic to the

  1. Rainforests of the North Eastern Hills
  2. Rainforests of the Western Ghats
  3. Deciduous forests of Central India
  4. Temperate forests of Himalayas

36. Percentage of net irrigated area to total by wells and tube-wells is high in which group of states?

  1. West Bengal, Gujarat, Rajasthan
  2. Gujarat, Rajasthan & Madhya Pradesh
  3. Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh & West Bengal
  4. Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu

37. Which is NOT matched? [River – Steel Plant]

  1. Koel and Sankh – Rourkela Steel Plant
  2. Damodar – Bokaro Steel Plant & Durgapur Steel Plant
  3. Barakar – Indian Iron and Steel Company ( Kulti )
  4. None of the above

38. Which of the following ports have NOT come to relieve the pressure of or to reduce the congestion of nearby port?

  1. Ennore
  2. Haldia
  3. Kandla
  4. Visakhapatnam

Answer choices

  1. 4 Only
  2. 1 Only
  3. 1 & 4 Only
  4. None of the Above

39. The shaded states are known for

general studies mock test map

  1. Wheat Production
  2. Sugarcane Production
  3. Rice Production
  4. Oilseeds Production

40. Statement 1: Coastal navigation is somewhat hazardous in the continental margin of Bay of Bengal

Statement 2: There are a number of shoals, reef and tiny islands in the continental margin region of Bay of Bengal

  1. Statement 1& Statement 2 are correct; Statement 2 is correct explanation for Statement 1
  2. Statement 1 & Statement 2 are correct; But, Statement 2 is not-correct explanation for Statement 1
  3. Statement 2 is Correct; But not Statement 1
  4. Statement 1 & Statement 2 both are not correct

41. The principle/s behind running magnetically levitated superfast trains is/are

  1. Superconductivity and Ferromagnetism
  2. Superconductivity and Paramagnetism
  3. Superconductivity and Diamagnetism
  4. Ferromagnetism Only

42. On the following different types of electromagnetic waves which is/are NOT possible to detect through photographic film

  1. Infra-red
  2. Ultraviolet
  3. Microwave
  4. Gamma rays

Answer choices

  1. None of the above
  2. 3 only
  3. 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4 Only

43. A step-up transformer changes

  1. Low-voltage into a high-voltage with violation of the law of conservation of energy
  2. Low-voltage into a high-voltage without violation of the law of conservation of energy
  3. High-voltage into a low-voltage with violation of the law of conservation of energy
  4. High-voltage into a low-voltage without violation of the law of conservation of energy

44. There is a reduction in the divergence of beam substantially in the LASER lights. This is because of

  1. Wavelength of each packet is almost the same
  2. Wavelength of each packet is largely different
  3. Average length of the packet of waves is much larger
  4. Average length of the packet of waves is much smaller

Answer choices

  1. I & III Only
  2. II & IV Only
  3. IV Only
  4. I & IV Only

45. The reasonable mechanism to explain how migratory birds determine direction

  1. Birds contain ferromagnetic material to detect earth’s magnetic field
  2. It is by electromagnetic induction
  3. Both A & B
  4. None of the above

46. Western Disturbance originates over the

  1. Mediterranean Sea
  2. Caspian Sea
  3. Black Sea
  4. All the above

47. In India, Easterly Waves affects

  1. Southern peninsular region
  2. Northern Western region
  3. Western Himalayas
  4. Eastern Himalayas

48. Indian Meteorological Department – IMD issues Long Range Forecast for

  1. Southwest Monsoon rainfall
  2. Southwest Monsoon onset date for Kerala
  3. Northeast Monsoon Rainfall
  4. Winter precipitation over Northwest India

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 1, 2 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3 Only

49. Statement 1: The flow of deep layer current is opposite to the surface layer current in the oceans

Statement 2: The deeper water is deflected by the Coriolis Effect

Statement 3: Deeper layers of water move more slowly than the surface layers

  1. Statement 1, 2 & 3 are correct; Statements 2 & 3 are required to explain Statement 1
  2. Statement 1 & 2 are correct; But, Statement 3 is not-correct; and Statement 2 alone is an explanation for Statement 1
  3. Statement 2 & 3 are Correct; But not Statement 1
  4. Statement 1 & 2 are correct; Statement 3 is not-correct; But statement 2 is not an explanation for Statement 1

50. From the point of view of storm surge vulnerability potential which of the following coastal regions are classified as VERY HIGH RISK ZONES?

  1. Between Paradip and Balasore in Orissa
  2. Andhra coast between Bapatla and Kakinada
  3. Tamilnadu coast between Pamban and Nagapattinam
  4. Gujarat along the west coast of India

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1 & 4 Only

Question 51 to 75

51. Consider the following statements about Extremists of India’s freedom movement – Which are CORRECT?

  1. Demanded independence
  2. Extolled the India’s pre-British past
  3. Were counterpart to movements like Arya Samaj and Ramakrishna Mission
  4. Used Western techniques largely in the struggle

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4

52. Who played an important role in Lucknow Pact of 1916, Nehru Report of 1927 and India’s Constitution?

  1. P. Sivaswami Iyer
  2. T.B. Sapru
  3. M.R. Jayakar
  4. R.P. Paranjpye

53. Consider the following statements about Home Rule movement- Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. It carried agitational politics to many new regions like Madras Presidency, Sind and United Provinces
  2. It provoked Non-brahmans  of western and southern India and they opposed high castes domination in this movement

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

54. ICS was a covenanted civil service because

  1. Its members entered into covenants with the East India Company
  2. Its members entered into covenants with the Secretary of State in Council
  3. Its members entered into covenants with the Governor-General of India

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 1 & 2 Only
  3. 3 Only
  4. 1 & 3 Only

55. Indian national movement has provided an inspiration to

  1. Nationalist movements in other Asian colonies
  2. Political and social reform movements in the democracies of the West
  3. Nationalist movements in African colonies

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

56. Consider the following items of the 11th schedule- Art 243 G of the Indian Constitution – Which is NOT correct?

  1. Audit and non-formal education
  2. Libraries
  3. Regulation of slaughter houses
  4. Non-conventional energy resources

57. Amendment by Special Majority and Ratification by States – which of the following items required it?

  1. The extent of the executive power of the Union and the States
  2. Administration and control of Scheduled areas and Scheduled Tribes
  3. The Supreme and the High Courts
  4. Representation of States in Parliament

Answer choices

  1. 2 Only
  2. 1, 2 &3 Only
  3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  4. All the above

58. Which Committee was held by G.V. Mavalankar – ‘Custodian of the duties of Parliament’?

  1. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
  2. Committee on Government Assurances
  3. Committee on Privileges
  4. Committee on Petitions

59. The article/s related to parliamentary privileges for Houses of Parliament, its members and Committees

  1. Article 105
  2. Article 122
  3. Article 19
  4. Article 194

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 4 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3 only

60. Consider the following statements about the Parliamentary Forums – Which is/are CORRECT?

  1. Each Parliamentary Forum, except one, consists of not more than 31 members excluding the Speaker of Lok Sabha, who is the ex officio President
  2. Each Parliamentary Forum has 21 members from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

61. The factors constraining growth in manufacturing sector include

  1. High rate of interest & Low domestic and external demand
  2. Infrastructure bottlenecks & High rate of interest
  3. Infrastructure bottlenecks
  4. Both A & C

62. Match

ConceptRelated process/Institution
1. Private placementsa) Public-Private Partnerships
2. Income distanceb) Finance Commission
3. Least Present Value of Revenuec) Capital Market
4. Baltic Dry Indexd) Merchandise trade as well as shipping services

Answer choices

Code1234
A.abcd
B.cbad
C.cdab
D.adbc

63. One of the targets of this year’s medium term fiscal policy statement in 2017-18 is

  1. Elimination of Effective Revenue Deficit
  2. Elimination of Revenue Deficit
  3. Elimination of Fiscal Deficit
  4. Elimination of Primary Deficit

64. Consider the following statements about the current economic situation – Which is wrong?

  1. Non-tax revenue has failed as one of the important components of government resources, in the present phase of fiscal consolidation
  2. The resource base of the Centre will be constrained following the implementation of the FFC
  3. Easing of international prices of crude oil provided the much needed opportunity to introduce some reforms in fuel prices
  4. Dividend from banks to GoI would increase relatively faster due to the coupled effect of increase in profit and increase in GoI stake in public sector banks

65. Recently, India is among the leading exporters of agricultural products, with a trade surplus. In relation to that which of the following statements are TRUE?

  1. Rice accounts for the bulk of exports, followed by cotton and fishery products
  2. India has become one of the top bovine meat exporters
  3. Exports of Protein meal are rising

Answer choices

  1. I, II and III
  2. II & III Only
  3. I Only
  4. None of the above

66. Statement 1: Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act is much broader than the scope of the Essential Commodities Act

Statement 2: It empowers the central and state governments concurrently to control production, supply and distribution of certain commodities, including pricing, stock-holding and the period for which the stocks can be kept and to impose duties

  1. Statement 1& 2 are correct; Statement 2 is correct explanation for Statement 1
  2. Statement 1 & 2 are correct; But, Statement 2 is not-correct explanation for Statement 1
  3. Statement 1 is Correct; But not Statement 2
  4. Statement 1 & 2 both are not correct

67. Indian economy’s present success has been attributed to

  1. Its proper utilization of “natural” comparative advantage – Unskilled and low-skilled labor
  2. Its proper utilization of “natural” comparative advantage – Natural resources
  3. Its proper utilization of “natural” comparative advantage – Geography (Location)
  4. None of the above

68. Chinese investment in railways dwarfs that in India. This is because

  1. Joint ventures i.e. of the government with provincial authorities
  2. Major users such as coal mines are also a party in investments
  3. Allowed to issue debt and borrow from the market

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 2 Only
  2. 2 &3 Only
  3. 1 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 3

69. Financial repression for the Indian banking system on the liability side has arisen from

  1. Households’ financial savings
  2. Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR)
  3. Inflation
  4. Priority sector lending (PSL)

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  2. 1 & 3 Only
  3. 2 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4 Only

70. Flaws in existing Public-Private Partnerships – Which is NOT correct?

  1. Existing contracts focus more on fiscal benefits than on efficient service provision
  2. If a bureaucrat restructures a project, there are no rewards
  3. The default revenue stream is directly collected user charges
  4. Combining construction and maintenance responsibilities

71. An Act amending the Constitution is not ‘law’ this was upheld in the

  1. Golaknath Case after 24th Amendment Act
  2. Golaknath Case before 24th Amendment Act
  3. Keshvananda Bharati Case after 24th Amendment Act
  4. Keshvananda Bharati Case before 24th Amendment Act

72. Which is/are true about Habeas Corpus?

  1. Supreme Court can issue only against State in cases of violation of fundamental rights
  2. High Court can issue only against private individuals in cases of fundamental rights

Answer choices

  1. 1 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 1 & 2
  4. None of the above

73. The administrator of a UT enjoys powers of promulgating ordinances under

  1. Article 239AB
  2. Article 239B
  3. Article 123
  4. No such provision in the constitution

74. The elaborate procedure for follow-up of the recommendations of financial committees by way of ‘Action Taken Reports’ is

  1. Derived from British system
  2. Derived from Canadian system
  3. Indian innovation
  4. Both A & B

75. Estimates relating to expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund – Which is/are TRUE?

  1. Not submitted to vote of Parliament
  2. Submitted to vote of Parliament
  3. Discussion is not barred
  4. Discussion is barred

Answer choices

  1. 1 & 4 Only
  2. 1 & 3 Only
  3. 2 Only
  4. 2 & 3 Only

Question 76 to 100

76. Folk drama – State/Region – Which are matched?

  1. Ankiya Nat – Maharashtra
  2. Tamasha – Assam
  3. Yatra – Braj
  4. Ras-lila – Bengal

Answer choices

  1. All the above
  2. 1 & 3 Only
  3. 2 & 4 Only
  4. None of the above

77. The musical instruments used in the South Indian music ensemble include

  1. Vina/Veena
  2. Mridangam
  3. Sarod
  4. Ghatam

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4 Only

78. Saura-Tribe is mentioned as ‘Savaras’ in Ramayana and Mahabharata and they are known for paintings. They are part of

  1. Gujarat
  2. Odisha
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Chattisgarh

79. Arrange chronologically the following issues on the basis of legal measures taken for women’s welfare

  1. Indecent Representation of Women
  2. Dowry Prohibition
  3. The Immoral Traffic prevention
  4. Protection of women from Domestic Violence

Answer choices

  1. 3-1-2-4
  2. 3-2-1-4
  3. 2-3-1-4
  4. 2-1-3-4

80. National level Finance and Development Corporation is NOT available for

  1. Scheduled Castes
  2. Backward Classes
  3. Women
  4. Handicapped

Answer choices

  1. 4 Only
  2. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  3. 3 Only
  4. 3 & 4 Only

81. Consider the following statements about the School Education – Which are CORRECT?

  1. In private schools learning levels across the country have improved but, public schools are lagging behind
  2. Enrolment in private schools increased in rural areas
  3. Improvement in drinking water facility, girls toilets and libraries in schools
  4. Same classroom are used for different classes

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2, 3 & 4
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4 only

82. The poor skill levels among India’s workforce is attributed to

  1. Dearth of a formal vocational education framework
  2. Wide variation in quality of education
  3. High school dropout rates
  4. Negative perception towards skilling

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  4. All the above

83. In India gender inequality is reflecting in

  1. Contraception
  2. Child sex ratio
  3. Implementation of laws
  4. Child mortality

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1, 2 & 4 Only
  4. All the above

84. On the following states which has less requirement to pursue simultaneously in areas like education, health (including reproductive health), gender issues, and employment generation

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Himachal Pradesh
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. None of the above

85. In each column identify the WRONG service/s

1. URGENT NEED TO INCREASE by India2. India is BETTER in
a. Shipping fleeta. Offshore services & Start-ups
b. International Tourist Arrivalsb. University–industry collaboration on R&D
c. Ship breaking & Ship recycling unitsc. Engineering consultancy
d. Patents filingd. Affordable housing

Answer choices

  1. 1-c, 2-d
  2. 1-c, 2-b & d
  3. 1-c & d, 2-d
  4. 1-c & d, 2-b & d

86. Consider the following statements about the ‘non-Gandhian’ methods of struggle for independence

  1. They had taken help from the enemies of British Government
  2. They transformed Indian soldiers of British Army to freedom fighters
  3. Congress Mahasabha passed resolutions to offer homage to their heroism and sacrifice
  4. It started as revolutionist tradition and culminated in military expedition

Which are TRUE?

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 1 & 4 Only
  3. 1, 3 & 4 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

87. “I differ from you as the South Pole differs from the North Pole, but if I had a dozen dedicated youths like you with me, I could have changed the history of India long ago.” These words are by

  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Swami Vivekananda
  3. Netaji Subash Chandra Bose
  4. Bhagat Singh

88. Who stressed NIBRITTI and KARMAYOGA in Gitarahashya during the freedom struggle?

  1. Rajagopalachari
  2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  3. Satyamurthi
  4. Swami Vivekananda

89. Swadhesi movement leaders were committed to which of the following activities?

  1. Educational development
  2. Rural development
  3. Insurance enterprises
  4. Garments production

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 2, 3 & 4 Only
  3. 1 & 2 Only
  4. 1, 2, 3 & 4

90. Match

PATRIOTIC ACTFREEDOM FIGHTER
a. Assassination of William Hutt Curzon Wyllie1. Kalpana Dutta
b. Delhi Conspiracy Case2. Ramprasad Bismil
c. Mastermind behind Kakori Conspiracy3. Bhai Balmukund
d. Task to attack European Club4. Madan Lal Dhingra

Answer choices

Code1234
A.abcd
B.dcab
C.dcba
D.abdc

91. The key concept/s of Darwinian Theory of Evolution is/are

  1. Branching descent
  2. Natural selection
  3. Both A& B
  4. None of the above

92. Which of the following political parties had NOT been occupant of the office of the Prime Minister of India?

  1. Congress
  2. Janata Party
  3. Bharatiya Janata Party
  4. Janata Dal

Answer choices

  1. 2 &4 Only
  2. 2 Only
  3. 4 Only
  4. None of the above

93. The Leader of the Opposition in the Jatiyo Sangshad (the national parliament of Bangladesh) is

  1. Sheikh Hasina
  2. Khaleda Zia
  3. Rowshan Ershad
  4. Abdul Hamid

94. Islamic State/Islamic State of Iraq and Levant /Islamic State of Iraq and Syria/Daish, and all its manifestations is banned in India under

  1. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967
  2. The National Security Act, 1980
  3. The National Security Act, 1980 & The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013
  4. Both A & B

95. Which are NOT matched?

1. LIDARLauncher
2. VIKASEngine
3. LVM3Observing/Measuring distance
4. SARALSmall Satellite

Answer choices

  1. 1, 2 & 3 Only
  2. 2 & 3 Only
  3. 1 & 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 & 4

96. Which perform the role of biological catalysts and crucial to communication system in the body?

  1. Proteins
  2. Carbohydrates
  3. Lipids
  4. Nucleic acids

97. Caprolactum is helpful in the production of

  1. Bakelite
  2. Nylon
  3. Polyesters
  4. Teflon

98. Consider the following statements about Ethanol – Which is CORRECT?

  1. It is known as ‘wood spirit’ as produced by destructive distillation of wood
  2. It is obtained commercially by fermentation, the oldest method is from sugars
  3. It is highly poisonous in nature and in small quantities can cause blindness and large quantities cause even death
  4. None of the above

99. Match

1. Treatment of lead poisoninga) EDTA
2. Effectively inhibit the growth of tumoursb) Platinum
3. Vitamin B12c) Cobalt
4. The purest form of commercial irond) Wrought Iron
e) Cast Iron

Answer choices

Code1234
A.cbad
B.abcd
C.abce
D.cbae

100. Which one of the following elements has Atomic Number 92?

  1. Actinium
  2. Thorium
  3. Uranium
  4. Plutonium

Answerkey

General Studies Answerkey

Mrunal recommends

  1. (free) NCERT, NIOS, TN-Books 4 History,Geo,Sci
  2. Indian Polity M.Laxmikanth (Hindi | English)
  3. Spectrum: Modern History (Hindi | English)
  4. Maths: Quantam CAT Sarvesh Kumar
  5. Objective General English SP Bakshi
  6. Word Power made Easy -Norman Lowe
  7. Topic wise Solved Paperset by Disha

194 Comments on “[Mock Test#8] Full Length General Studies Prelims Paper with 100 MCQs by Venkat Sir”

  1. very nice paper….GS 2 was superb

    1. You do know that GS2 doesn’t matter anymore right? You need 66/200, so even if you leave half the questions and get rest correct you will make it. GS1 mattered and it was horrible.

      1. yes I know that GS2 was qualifying in nature …but it was an intelligent paper n I don’t think many people will be able to qualify it except ones with mathematical background. the inferences question were quite subjective n I don’t think without arithmetic one cud be able to cross even 33%.

  2. I thought everyone loved this paper. Mrunal rocked!! Atleast 3-4 straight from the budget/survey video!!

  3. sir when you upload answer key upsc papar 2015

  4. So what will be our goldilocks zone…

    1. Kitne correct bna liye shweta ji ?

      1. I never reconcile my answers…I know it sounds hilarious but dats wat I do. m satisfied n believe in moving forward.

    2. exactly….mrunal devastated the economy forte again

  5. All the best to everyone who has exam!!
    is there anyone who dont have exam and preparing? There used to be a forum for discussions of mrunal site only! I cnt find that now.

  6. lots of negatives…

  7. Lot easier than previous paper. Someone who keeps track of newspaper religiously is bound to score well. Cut-off to be anywhere around 95. Thankyou Mrunal Sir and Rajtanil Madam for the concept clearity in economics and geography :) You guys rock!!

  8. FRNDS WHAT CAN BE THE EXPECTED CUT OFF?

  9. how was the paper doston? what were your experience after the battle??

  10. Friends what should be the cutoff for paper I (General category)??

  11. I AM GETTING AROUND 108 MARKS IN GS1. WHAT ARE MY CHANCES OF GETTING QUALIFIED?

  12. 60 waale ka kyaa banega?? :(

  13. mera score 43….koi chance bhaiyo?

    1. Yes, you do have a chance… “NO” Chance !

  14. century + hai iss barr

  15. Do we need books for next attempt?? Btw who will buy those 2nd hand book? Coaching Factory ka kya hoga??

  16. yes paper is lot easier than previous…
    and Mrunal bhai Thank you…
    Economy is just wow Bhai… Thank you

  17. My GS paper 1 score approx is coming up around 103-105… Not sure if I shud start studying for mains or just give up… Anyway this was my first and last serious attempt… Most probably will not be able to appear next time due to age limit reduction back to 30 for gen cat… Any idea about the banned topic – cutoff?

    1. i think ramanov you should prepare for mains with full effort, first of all it was gs paper not csat, it is very unlikely that cutoff will be over 100, another reason is that upsc is ultimate boss of answer key who know you score more, than dont waste your time in any kind of confusion, best of luck

  18. Mrunalnair was right.
    Sometimes questions from economics are like “insulting our intelligence”.;-)

  19. Mrunal sir was right.
    Sometimes questions from economics are like “insulting our intelligence”.;-)

  20. Kitne question attempt kiye hai aap log..?

  21. mera to bas 62 aa raha hi . bas maine to plane kar liya hi kal hi sari kittabe 2nd hand book market me sell kar dunga . bahott ho gaya ! ab no any preparation. i have wasted alott of my precious time

  22. Nobody can set paper like UPSC wallas!
    Hence proved!

  23. Cut off would be around 95 ….. Paper was easy… but most people do mistakes in some tricky ones…

  24. I think cut off will be around 105

  25. some are very easy but some are very tricky

  26. what will be cutoff this year

  27. Cutoff wont go beyond 100 for sure!!

    Every one says easy easy easy… but very few can do without doing silly mistakes!!

    So keep your hopes up, start reading for mains , discussing cutoff wont increase or decrease any thing!!

  28. attempted 96…68 correct and 28 wrong..thanks mrunal gurudev..

  29. @manishekhar
    …1 more question wrong!
    I ticked the other option.
    Wo 1,3&4 wala.

  30. does earth rotation has any affect on equator? what is the reason behind counter current at equator?

  31. Rounds about to 85 in OBC…Hope this ticks in… As most of you said it will not be above 100 for General Category and chnaces are there the cut off will be below 100 for others. Will prepare for mains..Lets c…

  32. current affair from

  33. Thanks to Mrunal sir…Helped a lot…….:-)

  34. Reason of not occurring cyclones in S Atlantic SE Pacific Regions???? Answer kya hoga??

  35. I think cutoff should be around 80s not more than that …………………coz 7600ur candidates scoring >100is not easy n most of us have done small mistakes so my take is on 80s……

  36. Very useful information
    ..keep it up

  37. Expected cut off will be 95-98. Best of luck to all aspirants of UPSC.

  38. Sir, give me suggestions about upcoming
    CPF exam

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