1. Environment
  2. Geography
  3. Agriculture

Environment

Q5. Which one of the following statements about the National Adaptation Fund for Climate Change is not correct? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. The fund is meant to assist national and State level activities to meet the cost of adaptation measures.
  2. This scheme has been taken as a Central Sector Scheme.
  3. The Indian Council of Agricultural Research is the national implementing agency.
  4. The scheme has been in force since 2015-2016.

Hint: National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) is the National Implementing Entity (NIE). Ref: India 2018 (Kindle Locations 4752-4753).

Q17. Which of the following statements about the olive ridley turtles is/are correct? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. They are the smallest and most abundant of all sea turtles found in the world.
  2. They live in warm waters of Pacific, Atlantic and Indian Oceans
  3. The Coromandel Coast in India is the largest mass nesting site for the olive ridley turtles.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Hint: The coast of Orissa in India is the largest mass nesting site for the Olive-ridley, followed by the coasts of Mexico and Costa Rica, says this WWF page, whereas Coromandel coast is located in Tamilnadu. So, third statement wrong, this eliminates A and D. First two statements are lifted verbatim from the same WWF page.

Q63. In which one of the following groups of States in India is the Integrated Coastal Zone Management (ICZM) Project being implemented as a pilot investment? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Gujarat, Kerala and Goa
  2. Kerala, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
  3. Gujarat, Odisha and West Bengal
  4. Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Hint: Gujarat, Orissa and West Bengal India Yearbook 2017’s ch.12 on environment. This was in news during 2017-Feb.

Q64. Which of the following statements about the National Water Academy (NWA) is/are correct? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. The primary objective of the NWA is to function as Centre of Excellence in training for in-service engineers from Central and State organizations on various aspects of water resource planning.
  2. The NWA is located in New Delhi.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Hint: According to India Yearbook 2017, the HQ is at Khadakwasla, Pune so second statement is wrong. The primary objective of NWA is to train all stakeholders- incl. teachers, NGO, PRI, Media personnel and Youth representatives.

Q72. Which of the following National Parks of India are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Keoladeo National Park
  2. Sundarbans National Park
  3. Kaziranga National Park
  4. Ranthambore National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Hint: The natural / mixed heritage sites of India in UNESCO list are:
Natural (7):

  • Great Himalayan National Park Conservation Area (2014)
  • Kaziranga National Park (1985)
  • Keoladeo National Park (1985)
  • Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985)
  • Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National Parks (1988,2005)
  • Sundarbans National Park (1987)
  • Western Ghats (2012)

Mixed (1)

  • Khangchendzonga National Park (2016)

Q94. Which one of the following is a true fish as per the biological system of classification? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Silverfish
  2. Jellyfish
  3. Cuttlefish
  4. Flying fish

Hint: NCERT Class9 ch.7 page93: Flying Fish is true fish (Pisces).

Q119. Consider the following statements about National Wildlife Action Plan (NWAP) of India for 2017-2031: (CDS-2018-i)

  1. This is the Third National Wildlife Action Plan.
  2. The NWAP is unique as this is the first time India has recognized- tthe concerns relating to climate change impact on wildlife.
  3. The NWAP has ten components.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Hint: First plan in 1983, second in 2002 and then Third NWAP was drafted by JC Kala Committee and was released in 2017, October, with five components, 17 themes, 103 conservation actions and 250 projects. Although GuessmastersTM would suggest that second statement ought to be wrong since it has an extreme word “First time”, but this statement is also right as per the Economic Times. So, eliminate accordingly.

Q93. Statement I : Bioaccumulation is a process of progressive accumulation of heavy metals and pesticides in an organism. Statement II : Large fishes of the pond are found to have higher concentration of pesticides than planktons of the same pond. (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Hint: Bioaccumulation / Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels. This happens because a toxic substance accumulated by an organism cannot be metabolised or excreted, and is thus passed on to the next higher trophic level. This phenomenon is well-known for mercury and DDT. NCERT Class12 Biology has also given a figure which shows higher concentration of DDT in large fish compared to plankton. So, both statements are right, but does #2 explain #1!?

Bioaccumulation Biomagnification

Q. Dobson Unit is a unit for measuring

  1. Soil Salinity
  2. Radiation contamination
  3. Thickness of algae bloom
  4. Thickness of Ozone in atmosphere

Hint: The thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of the atmosphere is measured in terms of Dobson units (DU). NCERT Class21 Biology chapter 16, page 282.

Q. Which of the following contributes the least to the total global warming of the earth?

  1. Carbon Dioxide
  2. Methane
  3. CFCs
  4. Nitrous Oxide (N2O)

Hint: NCERT Class12 Biology page 281 fig16.7: The relative contribution of various gases to total global warming is: 1) CO2-60% 2) Methane-20% 3) CFC-14% and 4) N2O-6%

Q. Find correct statements about : Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes)

  1. They are aquatic weed
  2. They are also known as ‘Terror of Bengal’.
  3. They grow abundantly in eutrophic water bodies.

Answer Codes:

  1. Only 1 and 2
  2. Only 2 and 3
  3. Only 1 and 3
  4. All of them

Hint: Plants of water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes)- world’s most problematic aquatic weed also known as “terror of Bengal”. They were introduced into India for their lovely flowers have caused havoc by their excessive growth in eutrophic waterbodies, and create blocks in our waterways. (NCERT Class12 biology page 275)

Geography

Q68. Which one of the following Indian States has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population to its total population? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Mizoram
  2. Nagaland
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Arunachal Pradesh

Hint: According to Census-2011, Mizoram: 94.4%, Nagaland: 86.5%; Meghalaya 86.1%; Arunanchal Pradesh: 68.8%. REF: India and World Geography by Majid Hussain (4th Ed.), chapter on population, table 11.11.

Q62. Which one of the following is not an exclusive right of the concerned coastal nations over Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ)? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Survey and exploitation of mineral resources of ocean deposits
  2. Exploitation of marine water energy and marine organisms including fishing
  3. Conservation and management of marine resources
  4. Navigation of ships and laying down submarine cables

Hint: In the exclusive economic zone, the coastal nation has sovereign rights for the purpose of exploring and exploiting, conserving and managing the natural resources, whether living or non-living, including production of energy from the water, currents and winds. That means first three rights are given to coastal states.
However, In the exclusive economic zone, all nations, whether coastal or land-locked shall enjoy the freedom of navigation and overflight and of the laying of submarine cables and pipelines, and other internationally lawful uses of the sea. That means fourth right is not exclusive only for the coastal nations. [REF: This UN Convention Page]

Q69. Extrusive volcanoes are not found in which one of the following mountains? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Alaska
  2. Rocky
  3. Andes
  4. Himalayas

Hint: Extrusive volcanoes are where material is thrown out during volcanic activity. So, whether such thing is found in Himalayas?

Q71. Consider the following tributaries of river Ganga : (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Gandak
  2. Kosi
  3. Ghaghara
  4. Gomti

Which one of the following is the correct order of the above rivers from east to west?

  1. 3-4-1-2
  2. 2-1-3-4
  3. 2-3-1-4
  4. 1-2-4-3

Hint: Observe the map from Class11 NCERT: the correct order from East to West is: Kosi (2) – Gandak (1) – Son – Gandhara (3)- Gomti (4).

Ganga River System

Q87. Statement I : By far the most common topographic form in a Karst terrain is the sinkhole. Statement II : Topographically, a sinkhole is depression that varies in depth from less than a meter to few hundred meters. (CDS-2018-i) select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Hint: NCERT Class11 Ch.7 page 65: Sinkholes are very common in limestone/karst areas. A sinkhole is an opening more or less circular at the top and funnel-shapped towards the bottom with sizes varying in area from a few sq. m to a hectare and with depth from a less than half a metre to thirty metres or more. So, both statements are right but does second statement explain the first?

Q88. Statement I : Incised meanders are formed in the mature stage of a river. Statement II : Incised meanders are characterized by rejuvenation and upliftment of land. (CDS-2018-i) select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Hint: UPSC lifted this question also from the same NCERT Class11 Ch.7 page 61. So go through it, iss bahaane revision bhi ho jaayegaa. Although, hardcore MCQs on Physical geography, particularly landforms- are more common in CDS but less frequent in Civil services, so you also need to think in terms of cost:benefit!

Q89. Statement I : Portions of glacial troughs may exhibit remarkably flat floors. Statement II : The flat floor in a glacial trough is produced by uniform glacial erosion. (CDS-2018-i) select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Hint: Same as above, page 68 of NCERT Class11.

Q90. Statement I : In Tundra climate, biodiversity is comparatively less. Statement II : Tundra climate has less reproductive warm period. (CDS-2018-i) select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Hint: NCERT Physical Geo Class11 ch. 15: Tundra Biome has Scanty vegetation; few large mammals , insects, reptiles and bird. NIOS Page 99: The word tundra means a “barren land” since they are found in those regions of the world where environmental conditions are very severe. Berkeley Uni says Tundra has short season of growth and reproduction. But if Tundra had longer warm period, will it increase individual species’ population or will it increase the ‘variety’ of species? and which of that is related with biodiversity?

Q91. Statement I : Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun and the rotation of the Earth. Statement II : The Earth rotates from west to east. (CDS-2018-i) select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
  2. Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement
  3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Hint: NCERT Class11 ch.14 page 121: Moon’s gravitational pull to a great extent and to a lesser extent the sun’s gravitational pull, are the major causes for the occurrence of tides. Another factor is centrifugal force, which is the force that acts to counter the balance the gravity. So, first statement is right. Second statement is also true but does it explain the first statement? To learn more about Tides, watch Rajtanil’s Lecture on Youtube.

Q99. Which of the following causes adiabatic temperature changes in atmosphere? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Deflection and advection
  2. Latent heat of condensation
  3. Expansion and compression of the air
  4. Partial absorption of solar radiation by the atmosphere

Hint: NCERT Class11 Geography Glossary: Adiabatic Lapse Rate : The rate of change of temperature by an ascending or descending airmass…when a parcel of air descends in the atmosphere. The air in a descending parcel becomes compressed. To learn this topic, watch Rajtanil’s Lecture on Youtube.

Q100. Which one of the following is applicable to collision-coalescence process of precipitation? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Clouds which do not extend beyond the freezing level
  2. Clouds which extend beyond the freezing level
  3. All types of clouds
  4. Cirrocumulus cloud

Hint: In colder clouds: droplets formed by Bergeron mechanism. But, in many parts of the world the air is too warm for ice crystals to form. This being the case, rain and snow cannot develop following the Bergeron Process. Instead, tiny droplets form as they collide into one another creating larger and larger droplet, this is known as collision- coalescence process. So, warmer clouds are associated with this keyword. REF: Majid Hussain’s Indian and World Geography Page 3.14 for more.

Q101. Which one of the following places of India experiences highest pressure during winter? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Jaisalmer
  2. Leh
  3. Chennai
  4. Guwahati

Hint: NCERT Class9 Contemporary India, ch.4 Climate page 28: During winter, there is a high-pressure area north of the Himalayas, Cold dry winds blow from this region to the low-pressure areas over the oceans to the south. So among the given options consider which one will be most ideal choice?

Q61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : (CDS-2018-i)

List-I (Cloud) List-II (Characteristic)
  1. Cirrus
  2. Stratus
  3. Nimbus
  4. Cumulus
  1. Rain-giving
  2. Feathery appearance
  3. Vertically growing
  4. Horizontally spreading

Code :

  1. A B C D: 3 1 4 2
  2. A B C D: 2 1 4 3
  3. A B C D: 2 4 1 3
  4. A B C D: 3 4 1 2

Hint: NCERT Geography Class11 Ch.11:

  • Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes (8,000 – 12,000m). They are thin and detatched clouds having a feathery appearance. They are always white in colour. So, A pairs with 2.
  • Clouds with extensive vertical development – cumulus and cumulonimbus. So, D pairs with 3.
  • While NCERT provides basic info on Stratus & Nimbus clouds, it doesn’t provide the key factoids necessary to pair B and C with the right options. However, Rajtanil has covered it in her lecture that Nimbus clouds give rainfall, so, C pairs with 1. So, eliminate the options accordingly.



Agriculture

Q30. Which one of the following is not an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayi Yojana (PMKSY)? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. To achieve convergence of investment in irrigation at the field level
  2. To expand cultivable area under irrigation
  3. To improve on-farm water use efficiency to reduce wastage of water
  4. To protect farmers against crop failure due to natural calamities.

Hint: First three given verbatim in India Yearbook 2018 ch.4 on Agriculture, whereas fourth statement is irrelevant. There is a separate PM Fasal Bima Yojana for that.

Q70. Which one of the following crops is not cultivated in Karewas, the lacustrine deposits of sand, clay, loam, silt and boulders? (CDS-2018-i)

  1. Saffron
  2. Almond
  3. Walnut
  4. Ling nut

Hint: NCERT Geography Class11 Ch.2: Karewas are the thick deposits of glacial clay and other materials embedded with moraines. Kashmir Himalayas are also famous for Karewa formations, which are useful for the cultivation of Zafran, a local variety of saffron. So, by guessmastergiri and word-association, first three are the type of crops cultivated in Kashmir, that means fourth Lingnut (water chestnut) is the odd man.