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  1. Topicwise breakup
  2. Aptitude
  3. Environment and Biodiversity (EnB)
  4. Current Affairs
  5. Economy
  6. English: Reading Comprehension
  7. English: Vocabulary
  8. Geography
  9. History
  10. Labour
  11. Polity
  12. Science
  13. Yearbook
  14. Lessons for future
  15. Cut offs for APFC 2012

Ok here goes the UnOfficial Answerkey for APFC 2012 with explanation and references for all series A, B,C and D.

  1. I’ve tried to solve the questions from standard reference sources (NCERT, India Yearbook, M.Laxmikanth, GS Manual etc) and resorted to Wikipedia/googling only as last resort.
  2. Where the source is not mentioned- assume that answer was too obvious or obtained through googling.
  3. Some answers are debatable; I’ve mentioned it at respective places and therefore I don’t make claim that mine is 100% authentic answerkey.
  4. For the aptitude questions, only answer and hints are given, full calculation and concepts will be explained in future youtube videos.

Topicwise breakup

Topic No.of Qs Source
Geography 2 2 from NCERT
Biodiversity 5 2 from NCERT
Current Affairs (GK) 6
Aptitude 8
Yearbook 8 4 of them from India Yearbook
History 9 7 from NCERT
Labour 10 5 from India Yearbook
Science 11 3 from NCERT
English 12
Economy 14
Polity 15 13 from M.Laxmikanth
Total 100 36

^”Sources” not exhaustive, but are given to show that UPSC papers don’t fall from sky, and therefore you should always refer and revise standard reference books rather than some readymade jholachhap material (a lot of that junk is flooding the market right now).


Note: The full calculations, concepts will be explained in separate youtube videos later.
1. If 20% of P = 30% of Q = 1/6 of R., then P: Q : R is :
(a) 2 : 3 : 16
(b) 3 : 2 : 16
(c) 10 : 15 : 18
(d) 15 : 10 18

2. A tree increases annually by 1/8th of its height. What will be its height after 2 years, if it stands today 64 cm high ?
(a) 72 cm
(b) 74 cm
(c) 81 cm
(d) 85 cm
Compound Interest Rate problem. Applying the formula, (9/8)^2 x 64=81 cm. Answer is C
Also refer the concept on

3. The sides of a triangle GHL are GH= 65 m, HL = 75 m and LG=80 m. What is the area of this triangle (square meters)?
(a) 2100
(b) 2160
(c) 2200
(d) 2280
Apply Hero’s formula. Answer is D

4. Three sets of data on comparable situations are available as under :

Observation No of data Mean value Std Deviation
1 9 8 1.6
2 12 7 12
3 15 9 1.4

Considering all the data sets together, the overall mean value would be ..
(a) 7.24
(b) 7.66
(c) 8.08
(d) 8.50
This is the concept of Weighted Average. Answer is C

5. A train travels at a certain average speed for a distance of 63 km. Thereafter it travels a distance of 72 km with an average speed of 6 km/hour more than the original speed. Total time taken to complete the journey is 3 hours. What is the original average speed of the train ?
(a) 36 kmph
(b) 42 kmph
(c) 48 kmph
(d) 54 kmph
Our STD table approach. Answer is (B)

6. An iron rod of 1 cm diameter and 8 cm length, is drawn into a wire of 18m in length with uniform thickness. The thickness of the wire would be :
Volume of cylinder will remain same in both cases. Apply formula and find diameter.
Answer is (C)

7. A 60 m long train travels at a uniform speed of 72 kmph. It passes non-stop along the 600m platform of a wayside station. What is the elapsed time for the train to entirely clear the platform ?
(a) 30 seconds
(b) 31 seconds
(c) 32 seconds
(d) 33 seconds
Answer (D) 33 seconds.
Convert speed in meter per second then apply STD formula. Length is 600+60
Also refer to understand the concept.

8. Train A is 75 m long and travels at a uniform speed of 54 km/hour. Train S is 125 m long and travels at a uniform speed of 36 km/hour in the direction opposite to that of Train A. If these trains are crossing at a double-track stretch, what is the time taken for the two trains to fully clear each other ?
(a) 10 seconds
(b) 8 seconds
(c) 7.2 seconds
(d) 6.6 seconds
Answer (B) 8 seconds.
Also refer to understand the Train concept.

Environment and Biodiversity (EnB)

1. Biome, largest recognizable assemblage of animals and plants on the Earth. is controlled mainly by :
(a) Biological activity
(b) Landforms
(c) Climate
(d) Soil
A biome is a plant and animal community that covers a large geographical area. The boundaries of different biomes on land are determined mainly by climate.
So answer is c
Refer NCERT Class 11 Physical Geography, Chapter15.

2. ‘Kyoto Protocol’, an agreement signed by various countries, is associated with
(a) International trade
(b) Deep sea oil and mineral exploration
(c) Clean environment and climate change
(d) Building common food stock to save
Lolz Answer is (C). For more on Kyoto protocol and Carbon trading, refer to this article

3. Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area ?
1. Global warming
2. Fragmentation of habitats
3. Invasion of alien species
4. Promotion of vegetarianism
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
See the Index of Biodiversity Action Draft Plan (PDF Uploaded here
As you can see in its index, first three terms are threats to Biodiversity.
And 4th statement either too stupid or too controversial. So my take is Option (A)

4. Vultures, which were very common in our countryside a few years ago, are rarely seen nowadays. This is attributed to one of the Following :
(a) Destruction of their nesting sites by new invasive species
(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their diseased cattle
(c) Scarcity of food available to them
(d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease amongst them
Lolz Answer (B) This is becoming very clichéd question. We discussed this already

Diclofenac is a painkiller medicine used mostly for arthritis in humans
Veternary Diclofenac is used on cattle, as painkiller, stopping inflammation and fever.
When Animals are treated with Diclofenac, this drug keeps accumulating in their body. When these animals die, Vultures eat them = kidney failure =death of vulture.
Hence Government of India banned Veternary Diclofenac. Now farmers have to use other expensive drugs instead of Diclofenac.

5. Match List

  1. Buxa Tiger Reserve
  1. Rajasthan
  1. Periyar Tiger Reserve
  1. Gujarat
  1. Sariska National Park
  1. West Bengal
  1. Wild Ass Sanctuary
  1. Kerala

Codes: ABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
NCERT Class 10 Geography Chapter II.
Page 17: The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is seriously threatened by the ongoing dolomite mining.
Page 19: Sariska Wildlife Sanctuary in Rajasthan, Manas Tiger Reserve in Assam and Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala are some of the tiger reserves of India.
Sariska is Rajsthan (c1)
and Periyar is Kerala (b4)
And Wild Asses are only found in Gujarat. (Common GK, found in various GS Manuals as well as GK 2013 by Manohar Pandey.)
Accordingly, Answer is (B)

Current Affairs

1. The regional project by name ‘CASA-1000’ (Central Asia-South Asia-1000), funded by World Bank, pertains to the field of :
(a) Eradication of HIV AIDS
(b) Roads and Buildings
(c) Electricity
(d) Eradication of illiteracy
Answer C
Under the Central Asia-South Asian-1000 (CASA-1000) plan sponsored by the World Bank, Tajikistan and Kyrgyzstan will supply surplus electricity to Afghanistan and Pakistan.
The Hindu

2. Who won the Golden Boot Award in the recently concluded UEFA Euro 2012
(a) Fernando Torres (Spain)
(b) Mario Balotelli (Italy)
(c) Cristiano Ronaldo (Portugal)
(d) Mario Gonna (Germany)
Answer (A).

3.  Match List-1 with List-11 and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :

  1. Steve Jobs
  2. Sheryl Sandberg
  3. Larry Page
  4. Ross Levinsolhn
  1. Google
  2. Apple
  3. Yahoo
  4. Facebook

Codes: A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Steve Jobs = Apple. So (B) and (D) eliminated. We are left with (A) and (C)
Larry Page = Google So we are left with (C)
Besides, Sheryl Sandberg= Facebook. Option (C) is correct.

4. Match book with Author

  1. Rahul Dravid: Timeless Steel
  2. An Ashes Summer
  3. Sachin : A Hundred Hundreds Now
  4. Opening Up :My autography
  1. Steve Waugh and Nasser Hussain
  2. Greg Chappell
  3. Mike Atherton
  4. V. Krishroswamy

Codes: A B C D
3 4 1 2
2 4 1 3
3 1 4 2
2 1 4 3
Greg Chappell wrote Rahul Dravid: Timeless Steel. It was in controversy because he claimed that other team members did not like Dravid’s success. So we eliminate (A) and (C).
Steve Waugh and Nasser Hussain were captains of Australia and England respective, so most likely to be attached with Ashes tournament.
so Book (B) matches with (1). Hence Option (D) is correct.
Source: Flipkart search hahaha

5. Why was Justice Dalveer Bhandari in the_ news recently ?
(a) He became member of UN Human Rights Council,
(b) He was elected to the International Court of Justice.
(c) He became Director General of World Trade Organization.
(d) He became Secretary-General of SAARC
Answer (B)
This was given in Competitionmaster website, that I had suggested.

6. Match Head with Institution

  1. Jim Yong Kim
  2. Kamlesh Sharma
  3. Christine Lagarde
  4. Catherine Day
  1. President, World Bank
  2. Secretary-General, Commonwealth
  3. Managing Director, IMF
  4. Secretary-General of the European Commission

Codes: A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 4 3
Now comes the controversial question.
Jim Yong Kim = President of the World Bank. He is the first physician and Asian-American to head World Bank. Given in same Competitionmaster article link above.
So Eliminate (A) and (C)
We are left with (B) and (D)
Christine Lagarde is the MD of IMF. So (C) should match with (3)
Catherine Day is current Secretary-General of the European Commission so (D) should match with (4)
But there is no such option.
May be the examiner setup this question while watching Tarak Mehta kaa Ooltaa Chashma.
I’ll have to ask UPSC in RTI what they’re going to do about this.


1. Despite having huge coal reserve in OUT country, why do we import millions of tons of coal?

  1. It is policy of Govt. of India to save its own coal reserve for future use and import now from other countries for present use.
  2. Most of the thermal plants in our country are coal based and they are unable to gel sufficient coal supply from our coal mines.
  3. Steel plants require large quantities of coking coal which we do not have, coking coal is to be imported from other countries.

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Answer (b)
Statement (1) doesn’t make sense.
Statement (2) is correct, because otherwise there was no need to create “Fuel Supply Agreement (FSA)” (i.e. Government asked Coal India to sign Fuel Sharing agreements with various clients to provide sufficient coal at required time)
Statement (3) is correct because The Hindu…”In a move to reduce dependence on highly priced Australian coking coal, India will acquire a mine in Mongolia and also set up the first steel plant in the quality coal rich country.
Chairman of Steel Authority of India (SAIL) told media that “Mongolia has very good quality of coking coal mines. We do not have such quality coal mines ourselves”

2. Which of the following statements is true about Industrial Policy since 1991?
(a) Only 5 industrial related to security, strategic and environmental concerns require Industrial License.
(b) An investor need not file an industrial entrepreneur Memorendum.
(c) There is no reservation of products for production in small scale sectors.
(d) The number of industries reserved for public sector has been enhanced.
Statement A is true- now only 5 industries require Industrial license, viz
Distillation and brewing of alcoholic drinks
Cigars and cigarettes made from tobacco and manufactured tobacco substitutes
Electronic aerospace and defense equipment: all types
Industrial explosives including detonating fuses, safety fuses, gun powder, nitrocellulose and matches
Hazardous chemicals such as hydrocyanic acid and its derivatives, phosgene and its derivatives, and isocyanates and diisocyanates of hydrocarbon, not specified elsewhere (example Methyl isocyanate)

3. The newly introduced rupee symbol is based on
(a) Roman and Greek script
(b) Persian and Dravidian script
(c) Roam and Devanagari script
(d) Greek and Devanagari script
The new Indian Rupee symbol is an amalgam of the Devnagiri ‘Ra’ and the Roman capital ‘R’

4. Which one of the following expresses the relation between normal price and market price?
(a) Market price is greater than normal price
(b) Market price is equal to normal price
(c) Market price tends to be equal to normal price
(d) Market price is lesser than normal price
Answer (C)
Market Price = current price at which an asset or service can be bought or sold. Economic theory contends that the market price converges at a point where the forces of supply and demand meet.
normal price =represents stable equilibrium between long-run demand and supply established after the supply has fully adjusted itself to the changed demand.
Market price can be higher or lower than the normal price. In fact, it tends to oscillate around the normal price and tends to be equal to it.
Market price is a reality as the day-to-day transactions do take place at this price, whereas the normal price is a Utopian concept.
Although NCERT Class 12 Microeconomics Chapter 4, too talks about Market Price but it goes in to too much technical details.

5. Bancassurance is
(a) An insurance scheme to insure bank deposits
(b) An insurance scheme exclusively for bank employees
(c) A composite financial service offering both bank and insurance products
(d) A bank deposit scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies
Investopedia: A French term referring to the selling of insurance through a bank’s established distribution channels, known as a Bancassurer. The result is a bank that can offer banking, insurance, lending, and investment products to a customer.
Option (C) comes close to this meaning.

6. Inflation can be controlled by
(a) Increase in wages
(b) Decrease in taxation
(c) Reduction in public expenditure
(d) Making the rupee dearer
They should have said what type of inflation it is (Cost push or Demand pull).
Otherwise answer will be debatable.
Anyways my take: given the options, RBI can make rupee dearer (i.e. hard to get loans) by increasing Repo Rate and thus reduce liquidity (money available for loan) in the market. So Option (D)
Increase in wages = first it is hard to ‘achieve’, Government can increase the wages of its employees by increase the Dearness Allowence (DA), but what about the private sector employees and the unorganized sector workers.
Decrease In taxation= again hard to do because Government would need to get it approved in parliament.
Reduction in public expenditure = debatable.
Marking Rupee Dearer = RBI can do this quick and easy under its monetary policy powers. This is the first line of defence, and RBI has been doing it last year.

7. Which of the following can be termed an infrastructural bottleneck in the development of India’s economy ?
(a) The federal nature of Indian Polity.
(b) Existence of a large variety of financial institutions
(c) Delay in the administration of justice relating to land acquisition and displacement
(d) The volatility of the Indian rupee
Indian Economy’s biggest bottleneck is UPA Government, but since this question is asking about “Infrastructural Bottleneck”.
So first what is infrastructure? Roads, highways, seaports, airports, railways, telephone connectivity, powerplants.
Each has its own peculiar ‘bottlenecks’ for example: telephone=2G scam and licence removal. Powerplants= coal supply and so on. But Out of the given options:
According to this IGNOU pdf

Some other factors pose challenges for the sector (Highways)…. These involve land acquisition, encroachment on highways, environmental and forest clearances, shifting of utilities, railway approvals for rail over bridges, local law and order problems, poor performance by some contractors, etc.
I pick up (C)

8. It is said that. in order to control inflation, foreign inflow needs to be sterilized. Sterilization here refers to
(a) Ensuring that counterfeit currency does not enter circulation,
(b) Ensuring that black money is accounted for,
(c) Withdrawing equivalent local currency to maintain a desirable rate of exchange,
(d) Compliance with import-export regulations,
Sterilization is most often used in the context of a central bank that takes actions to negate potentially harmful impacts of capital inflows – such as currency appreciation and inflation – both of which can reduce export competitiveness.
To prevent this, the country’s central bank may decide to intervene in the foreign exchange market. To prop up the value of the nation’s currency, the central bank may resort to creating artificial demand for its currency. It can do this by using some of its foreign exchange reserves to buy local currency.
So, Answer is (C)

9. NABARD means
(a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(b) National Agricultural Bank and Rural Development
(c) National Agricultural Board and Rural Development
(d) National Board for Agricultural and Rural Area Development
NABARD = National Bank for Agri and Rural Development. For more details

10. Which of the following are the main causes of the slow rate of growth of per capita income in India?
1. High rate of capital formation
2. High level of fiscal deficits
3. High rate of growth of population
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
The answer is only one: UPA Government, but it is not given in the options.
Generally, the higher the capital formation of an economy, the faster an economy can grow its aggregate income. Increasing an economy’s capital stock also increases its capacity for production, which means an economy can produce more. Producing more goods and services can lead to an increase in national income levels.
So High Rate of Capital formation is not cause of poor per capita income. Hence remove options containing statement (1).
A,B,C are eliminated.
we are left with answer (D)

11. If the RBI adopts an expansionist open market operations policy, this means it will
(a) Sell securities in the open market.
(b) Buy securities from non-government holders.
(c) Openly announce to the market that it intends to expand credit.
(d) Offer commercial banks more credit in the open marker
Expansionary monetary policy is monetary policy that seeks to increase the size of the money supply.
Open Market operation = The buying and selling of government securities in the open market in order to expand or contract the amount of money in the banking system. Purchases inject money into the banking system and stimulate growth while sales of securities do the opposite.
So, if RBI wants to increase money supply, it should buy (purchase) bonds from non-Government holders (that way RBI will give them money for purchase, hence money supply is increased).
Answer (B)

12. Structural Planning refers to .
(a) Centralized planning,
(b) Laying down broad goals and strategics.
(c) Changing existing institutions or creating new ones.
(d) Fixing flexible targets.
The planning which is aimed at bringing changes in socioeconomic set-up of a country is termed as structural planning. This type of planning is attributed to the planning which was made in USSR in 1929 when the existing land-lord-system was abolished, collective farming was introduced, trade, industries and transport system was nationalized.
Answer (C) According to

13. Which of the following is NOT one of the features of the Special Economic Zones (SEZ) being set up for promoting exports ?
(a) Foreign workers will be allowed free entry without Visa restrictions.
(b) The SEZ area will be treated as foreign territory for trade operations, duties and tariff.
(c) Them will be no routine examination by customs authorities of import-export cargo.
(d) No license is required for import into the zone.
The salient features of SEZ acts are given in the India Yearbook, Commerce Chapter.
So, Accordingly, Statement B,C and D are correct. So A has to be the false statement.
Answer (A)
14. Match the Following

  1. D.M Dharmadhikari
  1. National Corporate Governance
  1. Anil Kakodkar
  1. Air India—Indian Airlines merger
  1. B.N. Srikrishna
  1. Indian Railways High Level Safety Review
  1. Adi Godrej
  1. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 2 4 3 1
Dharmadhikari is Air India. (A2) [Been on Aaj-Tak, Indianexpress all the time during Pilot Hartaal]
Anil Kakodkar is Railway safety (B3)- we had seen his recommendations in earlier article
Eliminate the options without the A2-B3 combo and we are left with answer (B)

English: Reading Comprehension

Passage: old vs young
(Mrunal: I’ve given line numbers for easy reference in answers)

Sentence Comment
  1. It has been rightly said that we spend the first half of our lives trying to understand the older generation, and the second half trying to understand the younger generation.
  1. Youth has always felt somewhat exasperated (Greatly annoyed) with age, and age has always been suspicious of youth.
Young don’t like old and old suspect young.
  1. With their natural ebullience (enthusiasm) and impatience, a majority of you (young) people are keen to act and learn on their own rather than be guided by the experience of their elders
Young don’t like to listen to old.
  1. The older people, being more at home with words rather than with action, often make noises about the problems of youth.
Old can’t do “action” so they talk.
  1. In every generation, old men are found shaking their hoary heads and waxing nostalgic about the good old days when young people knew better and showed due reverence to age and tradition..
Old says “hamaare zamane mein” things were better and now they’re going downfall.
  1. in all ages, whenever they have pondered over the ways of youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruination (downfall) staring the world in its face
But in every generation old men repeat the same tape.
  1. And yet the world goes on.
  1. Every generation passes from the spontaneity and exuberance of youth to the caution and prudence of old age, and then yields place to the next.

1. What, according to you, is the theme and the idea of the passage ?
(a) Generation gap
(b) Problems of the youth
(c) Optimism of the older generation
(d) None of the above
Sentence 4 mentions the phrase “Problems of Youth”. But the whole passage is not revoling on that idea. consider
Sentence 1= we spend the first half of our lives trying to understand the older generation, and the second half trying to understand the younger
Sentence 3+4= majority of you (young) people are keen to act.……older people, being more at home with words rather than with action
Sentence 8= Every generation passes from …..youth to …old age, and then yields place to the next.
So majority of Sentences are revolving around the idea of Generation Gap.
Correct Option (A)
2. The older generation is suspicious about the younger generation as the youngsters lack
(a) knowledge
(b) experience
(c) patience
(d) time
Look @Sentence #3… With their natural ebullience (enthusiasm) and impatience, a majority of you (you) people are keen to act and learn on their own rather
So young people have impatience= they lack patience.
Answer (C)

3. The author seems to be supportive of the idea that
(a) the people of the older generation are men of words rather than action.
(b) the younger generation is impatient
(c) the younger generation today is much misunderstood and more maligned than it deserves
(d) none of the above
Debatable between (B) and (C).
I leave Opt A because
The phrase “Men of words rather than action” has an insulting tone, while the Author is merely saying that “…..older people, being more at home with words rather than with action (say certain things about youth”. (Sentence 4). His aim is not to insult the old. So Author woudn’t agree to the idea of statement A.
I leave Opt B because
Younger generation is impatient (Sentence 3). But They’re asking “author seems to be supportive of the idea” so that is not an idea, merely a restatement of what author said in sentence 3.
I pick Opt C because
Look at Sentence 4+6:
…(Old men) often make noises about the problems of youth….(but)…in all ages, whenever they have pondered over the ways of youth, they have foreseen nothing but ruination (downfall) staring the world in its face.
Following the hidden message in those lines, Author would support the idea that “the younger generation today is much misunderstood and more maligned than it deserves.”

4. “And yet the world goes on”—what is the tone of the author in this statement?
(a) Optimistic
(b) Pessimistic
(c) Cynical
(d) Critical

I leave D because

  • Critical means finding only errors and flaws- “Saala Buddha log bahut lecture detaa hai, they should change their  habit”. That’s not the tone of Author.  He has tried to be balanced : look @ Sentence 1,2 and 3.

I leave C because

  • Cynical is when we believe things won’t change and we make mockery/fun of it (like I do with Mohan whaat an idea sir-ji).  But That’s not the tone of Author. He is not making fun of anyone or ridiculing anyone, in any of the sentences.

I leave A because

  • Optimistic means Expecting or presenting the best possible outcome- it “Buddha log bahut lecture detaa hai, but I hope in future the Buddha log will work with youth and or Youth will stop wasting time on facebook and or Buddha log will stop whining about youth”. But That’s not what author says, implies or seeks anywhere in the passage.
  • Besides “Yet world goes on (fir bhi dunia chalti hai)” itself is a non-optimistic phrase.

I pick B because

  • Pessimistic is close to cynical but there is difference. Cynic feels that things won’t change and makes fun of it. Pessimist feels that things won’t change, but that’s all- he doesn’t make fun of it.
  • Look @sentence 6 ….. in all ages, whenever they (old men) have pondered over the ways of youth, they have foreseen ruination (downfall).
  • Look @Sentence 8= Every generation passes from the youth to old age, and then yields place to the next (generation)
  • So this is pessimistic. In every generation there will be Buddha log bashing the young, but then young people grow old, they also bash the new young people from next generation, and thus the world goes on.

Passage: Bribery.

I think Kapil “Zero Sum” Sibbal asked UPSC to include this passage.

  1. Who deserves more severe punishment?
UPSC and mohan.
  1. One who gives bribes or the one who takes them?
  1. The common practice of bribery is possible because there is someone who is ready to pay money for illegal action or decision in his favour, Otherwise, how can one demand a bribe ?
Look at the tone “Otherwise, how can one demand a bribe ?”
  1. The bribe-giver tempts others to be corrupt and thus demoralizes our national character
Bribe giver =bad guy.
  1. Even Jesus Christ, fearing the power of temptation, had said, ‘Lead me not into temptation”.
  1. A bribe-giver is generally moneyed and influential, while, on the other hand, one who demands bribe does so because of his poor circumstances arid compulsions.
Yeah that is right, when coaching factories of Kota and Delhi, and Medical–MBA colleges allover India demand exorbitant fees then what can a poor bureaucrat father do?
  1. Hence, one who gives bribe should be awarded more severe punishment because he exploits the weakness of poor.
  1. Giving and taking bribe happens in a more vicious circle which can continue only because of money, Naturally.
  1. therefore, it is the affluent that grease this wheel of corruption and should accordingly he dealt with firmly and suitably punished to put a stop to this nefarious practice.
Re-read the statement 5 “..bribe-giver is generally moneyed and influential” so he is the “affluent” guy = he is the bad guy.


5. The author feels that the practice of bribery is there because there are willing bribe-givers,
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partially true
(d) None of the above
Please note- in reading passage, you’re not supposed to answer what you feel about bribery but what author has written in the passage.
So, This is not “Partially True”, because author is totally convinced the bribe-givers are the culprit and he repeats it multiple times during the passage.
Hence it is “TRUE”.
Answer (A)

6. Who, according to the author, is more responsible among the following ?
(a) The bribe-taker
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The witness
(d) The general public
Obviously Answer (B) (according to the Author). Look at sentence 3 and 6.

7. Who, according to the author should be punished more severely ?
(a) The Police who allow this practice
(b) The bribe-giver
(c) The person who demands bribe
(d) None of the above
In both Sentence 5 and 8, author has demanded that bribe-giver must be punished severely.
Answer (B)

8. Who, according to the author is more corrupted?
(a) Our system
(b) The person who demands bribe
(c) The affluent who exploits the weakness of the poor.
(d) The supporter of bribe who is left with little choice
Statement 5,6 and 8= Answer (C)

English: Vocabulary

9. A judgment made before all the facts are known must be called :
(a) Deliberate
(b) Sensible ,
(c) Premature
(d) Harsh
Notice “before all the facts”
That is Premature. Answer (C)

10. Which of the following pairs of words expresses the same relationship as in ELUSIVE : CAPTURE ?
(a) Sensible : decide
(b) Headstrong: controlled
(c) Elastic : stretch
(d) Persuasive : convince
An Elusive person is hard to capture.
Similarly, a headstrong person (Habitually disposed to disobedience and opposition) is hard to be controlled.
Answer (B)

11. Choose the word which is the nearest opposite to the meaning of the underlined word :
I wish I could pursue my studies.
(a) Discontinue
(b) Abandon
(c) Restrain
(d) Deter
Answer (A) / (B) (debatable until I find reliable source.)

12. Which of the following options is the closest in meaning to the word CIRCUITOUS ?
(a) Indirect
(b) Confusing
(c) Crooked
(d) Cyclic
Wordweb says “Roundabout, Marked by obliqueness or indirection in speech or conduct.”
So closed meaning is (A)


1. A cultivator has about two hectares of rain fed land without irrigation facilities. Which type of crops would he like to grow?
1. Jowar
2. Cotton
3. Arhar
4. Potatoes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
NCERT Class 12 Geography (Land and People) Chapter 5,
Page 51: Cotton: …. Per hectare output of cotton is high under irrigated conditions in north-western region of the country. Its yield is very low in Maharashtra where it is grown under rainfed conditions.
Thus, it is not a good idea to cultivate Cotton without irrigation.
Remove all options containing #2 and we are left with final answer (D): Only Jowar and Arhar.

2. Which one of the following statements is true about red soil ?
(a) It is rich in humus.
(b) It is rich in potash.
(c) It is rich in iron compounds.
(d) It is derived from volcanic origin.
NCERT Class 11 Geography (India Physical Environment): Chapter 6, Page 71
Red Soil: They are generally poor in nitrogen, phosphorous and humus. (statement A is false)…
The soil develops a reddish colour due to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
So Statement (C) is correct.
Some aspirants had misconception that since APFC syllabus did not specifically mention “geography” so there was no need to prepare Geography. Well let this be a lesson- whenever you prepare for General studies or General Awareness or General Knowledge, Geography is must.


1. Which one of the following sets of industries were among first modern industries in India ?

  • (a)  Tea, Cotton and Sugar
  • (b)  Jute, Silk and Cotton
  • (c) Cotton, Jute and Coal-Mines
  • (d)  Sugar, Silk and Steel

So option (C) is correct because the first modern industries in India were cotton, jute, coal mines and railways. According to

NCERT Social Change and Development in India: (Class 12 textbook) Chapter 5, Page 77

2.  Archaeological studies suggest the theory that

  • (a)  All the continents were settled with human societies at about the same time
  • (b)  Farming societies developed before hunting and gathering
  • (c) The earliest human evolved in the Rift valley in East Africa
  • (d)  The wheel was in use in all ancient societies

Correct statement is (C)
NCERT Class 11, World History Chapter 1
3. Which term is used to describe the spread of Buddhism from India through Southeast Asia?
(a) Social mobility
(b) Cultural diffusion
(c) Ethnocentrism
(d) interdependence

Answer is (B)

Buddhism probably survived only because the Mauryan emperor Ashoka converted to it and promoted its practice. However, in the long run, Buddhism did much better in areas where it spread through cultural diffusion, such as Southeast Asia, China, and Japan.


4. Consider the following statements about heritage :
1. Heritage is that which has been or may be inherited.
2. Heritage is anything given or received to be a proper possession.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
On Page 16, It says that Oxford Shorter Dictionary gives following defiinations of Heritage


  • That which has been or may be inherited. . . .
  • The fact of inheriting; hereditary succession. . . .
  • Anything given or received to be a proper possession. . . .
  • An inherited lot or portion. . . .

So both the given meaning are correct. Answer (C)
(hahaha must be some ‘uncle-ji’ professor obsessed with Oxford dictionary, set this question.)

5. Consider the following statements :
1. By the early nineteenth century British carried out detailed surveys.
2. The effort was to know the topography, the soil quality, the flora, the fauna, the logical histories and the cropping pattern.
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Refer to NCERT Class 8 History Chapter 1
The practice of surveying also became common under the colonial administration. The British believed that a country had to be properly known before it could be effectively administered.
By the early nineteenth century detailed surveys were being carried out to map the entire country.
In the villages, revenue surveys were conducted. The effort was to know the topography, the soil
quality, the flora, the fauna, the local histories, and the cropping pattern – all the facts seen as necessary to know about to administer the region.
So both statements are correct Answer (C)

6. Which of the following is a correct statement about both the Mughal and Ottoman empires in the sixteenth century?
(a) Both of these empires had powerful navies that engaged European navies.
(b) Both of these empires expanded through the use of gunpowder weapons and extensive bureaucracies.
(c) Both of these empires gave little monetary support to artistic and cultural endeavors.
(d)  In both of these empires the majority of the people were Muslims.

  • Mughals did not have powerful navies to ‘engage’ with European navies
  • Mughals did give monetary support to artistic and cultural endeavors.
  • In Mughal empire, majority were Hindus.

So A,C and D are false.
We are left with Answer Option (B)
Further wiki-ing confirms that
The Mughals introduced in India the system of gunfire shot from cannons and Ottomans were some of the first to embrace gunpowder artillery.
The Mughal administrative system had at its apex a military-cum-bureaucratic apparatus (mansabdari) which was responsible for looking after the civil and military affairs of the state. (NCERT Class 12 History Chapter 8)

7. Which is the correct meaning of the term `rule of primogeniture’ ?
(a) Favourite son inheriting his father’s estate
(b) Eldest son inheriting his father’s estate
(c) Division of the inheritance amongst all the SODS
(d) Division of the inheritance amongst all the sons and daughters
Wordweb Software Dictionary (Free) says ‘primogeniture’ = Right of inheritance belongs exclusively to the eldest son.
I’ve classified this question under History portion because it is said that Mughal empire declined because of this Primogeniture rule (because it results in fighting between brothers to claim the throne.)
Answer (B)

8. Which of the following would be the most useful source of evidence for research about the agrarian history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries ?
(a) Accounts of contemporary travellers
(b) Individual revenue records
(c) Chronicles and documents from the Mughal court
(d) Records of the East India company
NCERT Class 12 History Chapter 8, Page 197
…. Our understanding of the workings of rural society does not come from those who worked the land, as peasants did not write about themselves. Our major source for the agrarian history of the sixteenth and early seventeenth centuries are chronicles and documents from the Mughal court.
So Answer is (C)

9. Consider the following

  1. Rowlett Act movement (1919)
  2. Khera movement
  3. Champaran (1917)
  4. Ahmedabad mill strike

What is the correct chronological order of the above mentioned Gandhian movements ?

  • (a)  3, 4, 2 and 1
  • (b)  2, 3, 1 and 4
  • (c) 3, 2, 4 and 1
  • (d)  2,1, 3 and 4

NCERT Class 10 History, Chapter 3, Page 56

  1. In 1916 he (Gandhi) travelled to Champaran in Bihar to inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.
  2. Then in 1917, he organised a satyagraha to support the peasants of the Kheda district of Gujarat.
  3. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to organise a satyagraha movement amongst cotton mill workers
  4. Emboldened with this success, Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919)

So Sequence is Champa>Kheda>A’bad>Rowlatt

3,2,4,1 = Answer (C). Some friends are saying Champa>A’bad>Kheda>Rowlett, citing other reliable sources. But I’ve picked up C, because it is given in the  NCERT Class 10 Textbook.


1.  Statement (I) : Industrial relation is currently more influenced by the external market forces than the power play between employers and employees.

Statement (II) : The forces of globalization have made competition so imperative that unions and their tactics like stopping productivity no more hold good.

Ansewer (A). Both correct and II explains I. (or can be debatable)

2.  Match following

  1. Industrial Welfare
  1. Charles A Mayers
  1. Human Relations thought
  1. A.K. Rice
  1. Concept of Third Force
  1. Robert Owen
  1. Ahmedabad Experiment
  1. Elton Mayo

Codes: ABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
A’bad experiment by AK rice So D2
Mayo is known as the founder of the Human Relations Movement (Public Administration people alert!) So B4
Eliminate the options that donot have D2,B4 combo and we are left with answer option is (D)

3. Match Following

  1. First National Comission on Labour,1969
  1. GK Chanda
  1. Wage Board for Working Journalists, 2009
  1. Ravindra Verma
  1. Second National Commission on Labour. 2002
  1. P.B. Gajendragadkar.
  1. Index Review Committee, 2009
  1. R. Mejithia

Code :
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 4 3
First labour Commission =Gajendra gadkar.
Wage Board is Majithia (been in The Hindu news+ same India Yearbook Labour chapter)
Index Review is GK Chanda (India Yearbook Chapter on Labour)
So accordingly, Answer Choice (A)

4. Which of the following is NOT covered by the Employees Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952 ?
(a) Pension
(b) Provident Fund
(c) Deposit Linked insurance
(d) Injury Compensation
Page 713 of India Yearbook 2011
….Act seeks to provide the financial social security to the employees in the form of provident fund, pension and deposit-linked insurance.
So fourth Option (D) is incorrect.
5. Which of the following statements about Workmen’s Compensation Act, 1923 is true ?
(a) It is not social security legislation.
(b) Its name has been changed to the Employee’s Compensation Act in 2009.
(c) It provides maximum Compensation in the event of death.
(d) It does not provide compensation for occupational diseases.
India Yearbook 2011, Page 711
This Act is given under the heading of “Social Security”. Hence Statement 1 is false.
It also says The Act has now become “The Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923” by “the
Workmen’s Compensation (Amendment) Act, 2009” dated the 23 December, 2009
Therefore Statement B is True.
6. Which of the following legislations is comprehensive social security legislation?
(a) The Maternity Benefit Act
(b) The Employees State Insurance Act
(c) The Employees Compensation Act
(d) The Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act

  • Comprehensive means it should cover many things.
  • Maternity covers only Maternity. So A is false
  • Employers State Insurance= only helps in sickness, maternity and employment injury and pension for dependents “IF” the case is dealing with employment related injury. So B is false.
  • Employees Compensation Act= this is the new name of “minimum wages” act, hence it’s only ‘minimum wages’, not really comprehensive social security.  (Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Labour.)
  • Employees Provident Funds and Misc. Provisions Act=provident funds, family pension funds and deposit linked insurance. These schemes taken together provide to the employees an old age and survivorship benefits, a long term protection and security to the employee and after his death to his family members, advances during sickness and for the purchase/ construction of a house during the period of membership. –(reference )
Thus Employee Provident Fund and Misc. Provision, is more comprehensive than other three. So, Answer (D)

7. What is the maximum limit of gratuity payable under the Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972 ?

(a) 3 Lakhs rupees
(b) 7.5 Lakhs rupees
(c) 10 Lakhs rupees
(d) 10.5 Lakhs rupees
Answer (C)
The Act provides for payment of gratuity at the rate of 15 days’
wages for each completed year of service or part thereof in excess of six months
subject to the maximum of 10 lakh.
Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Labour.

8. The main objective of the Minimum Wages Acts 1948 is to safeguard the interests of the workers engaged in ;
(a) Unorganized sector
(b) Organized sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Agricultural sector
Answer (A)
….. In fact the sole purpose of this act is to prevent exploitation of sweeted and unorganised labour, working in compititive market.

Also India Yearbook.

9. In which of the following Acts, housing facility is a statutory provision
(a) The Plantations Labour Act, 1951
(b) The Factories Act, 1948
(c) The Mines Act, 1952
(d) None of the above
It is Planation Labour Act.- It shall be the duty of every employer to provide and maintain necessary housing accommodation– (a) for every worker (including his family) residing in the plantation…
Answer is (A)
10. Consider the following statements regarding human development :
1. Skills may be harnessed in the society through participations of NGOs.
2. To fill the internal gaps in the system, reviews and international experiences can prove to be helpful.
Which of these statements is are correct ?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Neither I nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
Many of (Bogus) Government scheme run with the 1st statement – NGO assembles a few poor women in to Self-help group (SHG), takes money from Government and gives them ‘skill upgradation’ training.
So 1st statement is true.
Statement 2. I’m unable to locate the source/ reference. But sounds plausible.
Either (A) or (D) [Debatable]


1. Statement (I) Every State in India has a High Court in its (State’s) territory.
Statement (II) = As per constitution of India, each State is provided to have a High Court.
1st Statement is wrong because Not all North Eastern States have their separate high courts. Besides Punjab + Haryana have common high court. (refer to table given @the end of Laxmikanth’s chapter on High courts)

Art. 214 of Constitution =There shall be a high court in Each State =2nd statement is correct.
So 1 is false and 2 is true = Option (D)


GSM E 2. Statement (I) The Directive Principles of State Policy enshrined in the constitution, aim at providing the social and economic base of a genuine democracy.
Statement (II) : The Directive Principles are merely directives which the government has to keep in mind while framing policy and is not enforceable through courts.
This question is directly lifted from Tata Macgrawhill General Studies Manual 2012 (Polity section Mock Question #138)
The answer is (b). Both are individualally correct but 2 is not explaining 1.

3. Which of the following sets of countries has only federations ?

  1. New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argentina
  2. Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
  3. India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa
  4. France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland

They’re asking “ONLY” Federations.
India has Federations (States) but also “Union Territories”. And Sri Lanka is Unitary So I eliminate opt (C) and (A)
Besides, New Zealand is also unitary= A again eliminated.
France is a unitary country. So (D) is eliminated.
We are left with (B)
However, Wiki says Malaysia has three 3 federal territories
So either (B) or Doubtful.

4. In which part of the Indian Constitution, Worker’s participation in Management has been incorporated ?
(a) The Preamble
(b) The Fundamental Rights
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Answer (c)
Article 43-A, Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP).
Source: Refer Laxmikanth chapter on DPSP

5.  The following provision, “Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance” is a

  • (a)  Fundamental Right guaranteed by the Constitution of India
  • (b)  Directive Principle of State Policy of the Constitution of India
  • (c) Fundamental Duty laid down by the Constitution of India.
  • (d)  Presidential order in accordance with the Constitution of India

It is given in Article 49= Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
So Answer is (B)
(please don’t confuse this monument protection as fundamental duty)
Refer the DPSP chapter in Laxmikanth

6.  The Seventh schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding

  • (a)  Scheduled Languages
  • (b)  Oaths and affirmations
  • (c) Administration of Tribal area
  • (d)  Union, State, Concurrent Lists

Answer is (D)
Refer the appendix of Lakshmikanth.

7. The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of elected members of
1. Both Houses of Parliament
2. The Legislative Assemblies of the States
3. Union Council of Ministers
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Actually the options are incomplete because President is elected by (1) elected members of parliament, (2) State assemblies AND (3) elected members of Delhi and Pondicherry.
But in the given situation, Answer is (C)
Refer Laxmikanth Chapter on President.


Pol E 8. The responsibility of preparation of electoral rolls in India rests with
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Local Administration
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The Returning Officer
It is the responsibility of Election Commission, to prepare and periodically revise all electoral rolls.
Refer Laxmikanth Chapter on EC

9. At the time of becoming the Prime Minister of our country one
(a) Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament. If not, must become a member of one of the Houses within Six months.
(b) Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament but must get elected as a member of Lok Sabha within Six months.
(c) Must be a member of one of the Houses of Parliament prior to appointment.
(d) Must be a member of Rajya Sabha.
In 1997, SC held that person who is not a member of either house, can be appointed as PM for 6 months within which he should become member of either house.
So (A) is correct.
Refer Laxmikanth chapter on Prime Minister

10. Match following

  1. Second Administrative Reforms Commission
  1. Vijay Kelkar
  1. Second Commission on Centre State Relations
  1. Justice M.N.Venkatchaliah
  1. Thirteenth Finance Commission
  1. Justice Madan Mohan Punchi
  1. National Commission for the Review of the working of the Constitution.
  1. M.Veerpappamoily

Codes ABCD
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 3 l 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 2 1 3 4
Moily is ARC. (Polity chapter of India Yearbook)
Venkatcheliya is to review Constitution. (Given in appendix of Laxmikanth)
Kelkar is in finance Commission. (Finance chapter of India Yearbook)
Punchi is doing center state (Polity chapter of India Yearbook)
So match options accordingly.

11. What is common to Sardar Hukum Singh, Jagiivan Ram. Inderjit Gupta, Somnath Chatterjee and Seth Govind Das ?
(a) They were Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(b) They were Deputy Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(c) They were Pro-tern Speakers of the Lok Sabha
(d) None of the Above
Jagjiwan Ram was definitely not a speaker of Lok Sabha. So Option A is false.
On this link: it is given that all of them were pro-tem speakers. So Answer is (C)
(Lekin yaar itnaa detail mein kon prepare karta hai- and that too for a “pro-tem” speaker!)
12. The purpose of Adjournment motion in our Parliament is
(a) To allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
(b) To let opposition members collect information from concerned Ministers.
(c) To allow a reduction of specific amount in the demand of grant.
(d) To postpone the proceedings to cheek the inappropriate or the violent behavior on the part of some members,
Answer (A)
Refer Laxmikanth chapter on Parliament.

13. Consider the following statements regarding limitations on the authority of the Indian Parliament
1. Most of the important laws can be introduced in the Parliament with the prior consent of the President.
2. Parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by the Constitution,
Which of these statements is/are correct ?
(a) Both 1 and 2
(b) Neither 1 nor 2
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only
Statement 1 is kinda debatable whether it is true or false because While Presidential approval is necessary before putting Money bill, alternating state boundaries, creating new states etc., but his prior permission is not required incase of Constitutional amendment bill.
Statement 2 is true, because 7th schedule gives union, state and concurrent list. So Parliament cannot legislate on State matters, so in this way parliament has to operate within the jurisdiction earmarked by Constitution.
Answer Either (D) or (A)

14. Consider the following statements in respect of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) :
1. Reports on the accounts of the States are submitted to the President who shall cause these to be placed before the Parliament.
2. CAG is appointed by the President of India and can be removed only on grounds and procedure similar to those of a Supreme Court Judge.
3. The form in which accounts of the Centre and States are to be kept is prescribed by CAG
Which of these statements are correct ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

CAG is responsible for doing audits of both state and union Government.
He gives the union audit report to President and state audit report to the respective governors.

Refer Article 151, Part 5, Constitution of India.

Laxmikanth Chapter on CAG -> Duties and Powers.
Hence, Statement 1 is false because it says CAG gives State reports to President.
So, eliminate all options containing statement 1. = A,B and D are eliminated.
And we are left with answer (C)


1. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person (in kg) is divided by the
(a) Square of the weight (in kg)
(b) Square of the height (in meters)
(c) Square root of the height (in meters)
(d) Vitamins intake
Answer: (b)
….One way to find out if adults are undernourished is to calculate what nutrition scientists call Body Mass Index (BMI). This is easy to calculate. Take the weight of the person in kg. Then take the height in metres. Divide the weight by the square of the height.
Source: NCERT Class 10 Economy Chapter 1.

2. Gun metal is an alloy of
(a) Copper, Tin and Zinc
(b) Aluminium. Tin and Steel
(c) Copper, Steel and Zinc,
(d) Aluminium, Tin and Zinc
Answer (A)
Gun Metal is Copper, Zinc and Tin. (googled)

3. If the electrical resistance of a typical substance suddenly drops to zero, then the substance is called
(a) Semiconductor
(b) Conductor
(c) Superconductor
(d) Super semiconductor
It is super-conductor.
Question repeated from NDA exam taken in 2011.
Wordweb Software Dictionary: Superconductor= A material that has no electric resistance (at a certain temperature)
Also explained somewhere in NCERT science but can’t locate it right now.
Answer (C)

4. The material used for electric fuse is an alloy of tin and lead. This alloy should have:

  1. High specific resistance and low melting point
  2. Low specific resistance and high melting point.
  3. Low specific resistance and low melting point,
  4. High specific resistance and high melting point

A fuse wire should have low melting point, otherwise it’ll never melt even if there is overload! [For making bulb, it’d be reverse- need high melting point]
So eliminate (B) and (D)

The main object of using fuse wire in electric circuit is to provide protection against short circuit or overload current. This means it protects the circuit from huge amount of current flow as it cause the damage to the circuit.
The fuse wire select such a way that it burns and break the circuit when large current passes. For this purpose the material used as fuse wire should have high resistance and low melting point.Due to high resistance the wire heats up quickly, when huge current flows. The temperature around the fuse wire rapidly rises, when it reaches the melting point of the material it burns and protects the circuits.

High resistance and low melting point are responsible to the quick response of the fuse wire towards the current.

The common material used as fuse wire is an alloy of tin and lead.

Answer (A) (Wikipedia talks about low resistance, but I’ve picked up high resistance, because of above explanation.)

Besides, here is another source that pretty much sums up the whole thing:

fuse wire is made from an alloy which as a low melting point but high specific resistance. e.g usually a tin-lead alloy is used. -Page 210 of Numerical Physics Volume II, By Dr. P. K. Agrawal (Krishna Prakashan)


5. Statement (I) In order to produce electric power from a geothermal reservoir, temperature above 180° is required.

Statement (II) : To drive steam turbines, high temperature steam is used.
Option (a). (OR debatable, because hard to locate a reliable source)
Both correct, and 2 explains 1- based on interpretation of:
But this wiki article segment talks about merely one type of flash steam power plant.

6. The word FTP stands for

GK 2013
  • (a)  File Transit Provision
  • (b)  File Translate Protocol
  • (c) File Transfer Provision
  • (d)  File Transfer Protocol


FTP = File Transfer Protocol.

GK 2013 Manohar Pandey (Page 100)

So, Answer(D)


7. RAM stands for:
(a) Random Access Memory
(b) Read Access Memory
(c) Random Attribute Memory
(d) Random Applicable Memory
Random Access Memory

Answer (A) Again GK 2013 Manohar Pandey (Page 98) or TMH Manual (Science > Computer portion).

8. Which of the following is also known as brain of computer ?
(a) Monitor
(b) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
(c) Control Unit
(d) Central Processing Unit (CPU)
Lolz (D)

9. A technique in which data is written to two duplicate disks simultaneously, is called :
(a) Mirroring
(b) Multiplexing
(c) Duplicating
(d) Copying
It is called Disc Mirroring.
Answer (A)

10. term e-Waste refers to :

  1. The files that are deleted and enter the Waste-bin folder in a computer
  2. The temporary files, folders, links etc, that are rarely used in a computer
  3. The electronic products such as mobiles, PCs etc. that are disposed off after their useful life
  4. A portal that offers services for collecting household waste

This term describes the describes discarded electrical or electronic devices.
Answer (C)

11. CAD stands for :
(a) Computer Aided Design
(b) Computer Application in Design
(c) Coded Algorithm in Design
(d) Coded Addressable Design
CAD = Computer Aided Design. It is a type of software used mostly by engineers.
Answer (A)


1. The Endeavour of “Janani Suraksha Yojana” Programme is to
1. Promote institutional deliveries
2. Provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery
3. Provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
For Wage loss during Pregnancy – there is separate scheme called “Indira Gandhi Matritva Sahyog Yojana(IGMSY)” (Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Welfare.)
So statement 3 is false. Eliminate the options containing Statement (3), and we are left with final answer (A)

2. Which of the following is the earliest in be constituted ?
(a) Press Council of India (1966)
(b) United News of India (1961)
(c) NAM News Network (2005)
(d) Press Trust of India (1947)
I’ve googled and given their formation years in bracket. You can now solve it on your own.
3. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) aims at enhancing livelihood security in rural areas or India by providing at least one hundred :
(a) Days of guaranteed employment in a financial year to able adults in the Information Technology sector.
(b) Days of guaranteed wage employment in a financial year to adult members of a rural household
(c) Meals to children of Pura/ households in one financial year.
(d) Employees for rural developmental schemes in a financial year
Answer (B)
Source: India Yearbook Chapter on Communications and Information Technology (Page 189, in the 2011 edition)

4. One of the following Government of India Programmes aims to help, build or upgrade
dwelling units of below the poverty line rural families
(a) National Social-Assistance Programme
(b) Jawahat Rojgar Yojana
(c) Indira Awas Yojana
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban . Renewal Mission
Obviously Indira Awas Yojana.

5. The Mid-Day Meal Scheme was launched in 1995 with the aim to:
1. Enhance enrolment, retention and attention of primary school children
2. Improve the nutritional status of primary school children
3. Improve the habit of reading reading rural households
4. Encourage the use of Tiffin boxes among primary School children
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 4
The Mid-day Meal Scheme was launched and implemented by the Ministry of Human Resource Development with a view to enhancing enrolment, retention and attendance and simultaneously improving nutritional levels among children with effect from 15 August 1995
So only 1 and 2 statement correct.
Answer (A)
Refer India Yearbook Chapter on Food and Civil Supplies.

6. Which of the following is NOT a recommendation of the National Cooperative Farming Advisory Board for putting cooperative farming on a sounder footing ?
(a) Every Society should have a definite programme for total pooling of lands.
(b) Financial assistance should be given only for purchase of new land.
(c) Stale Governments should give priority to revitalization of the existing societies.
(d) Joint fanning must be practiced with respect to all lands of the society.
Directly lifted from Pearson CSAT Manual 2012, Page E254 Question number 179
Answer is B (or Doubtful, because I’m unable to find its recommendations on internet despite repeated google search using various keywords!)
7. Three States which have Human Development Index (HDI) higher than China are :
(a) Kerala. Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
(b) Kerala. Punjab and Maharashtra
(c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Punjab
(d) Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat
If we apply the ‘common-sense’ that China’s HDI is higher than India and Madhya Pradesh is the baddest state of India, in terms of HDI
then every option containing Madhya Prades’s HDI is usually very low. So A,C and D are gone and we are left with only Answer (B)
But here is the twist in this story-
Economic Survey 2012, Chapter 13- Human Development, Page 303
the HDI of China for 2011 = 0.687
And HDI for various states of India for 2011, are given on
So accordingly, Maharashtra and Gujarat have HDI are in the range of 0.5 something.
So eliminate all options having Maharashtra OR Gujarat.
And we’re left with no option!
(If we go by that wikipage, then It is Kerala, Himachal Pradesh and Goa= have higher than China HDI but no such option is given.)
8. How does National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor ?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centers in rural areas.
2. By strengthening Self Help Group’s (SHG) and providing skill development.
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 only
Refer to Economic Survey 2012, Chapter 13: Human Development.
The Salient features of NRLM are given on On page 314 and 315.
Accordingly, Only statement 2 is correct.

Lessons for future

  1. If you felt uncomfortable with the aptitude and English (comprehension and vocabulary) questions that means you definitely need to work harder on those topics, for next exams. (IBPS, SSC, CPF, CSAT whatever is the your case)
  2. Some people believed that Geography was not to be prepared because UPSC APFC syllabus did not mention Geography. Well, 2 questions from geography and directly from NCERT Geography textbooks. So, whenever there is General knowledge / General studies= Geography must be prepared whether it is mentioned explicitly in the syllabus or not.
  3. Stick to standard reference books and revise them often.
  4. Negative marking can be both a dream-killer and a kingmaker, whether you’re sitting in UPSC, IBPS or CAT. Never force yourself into ticking answers just to cross an imaginary cutoff.

Cut offs for APFC 2012

There are two types of people in competition business.

  1. The serious players.
  2. The Lord Curzons  – those who fill up the form just because their papa said (JBPS). After the exam, Lord Curzons throw away their question papers and misplace their halltickets.

If you landed on this page- it means you were interested in seeing the answerkeys and checking your scores= That means you’re a serious player, and hence one day you’ll face the interview board- if not of APFC then of RBI, UPSC, IIM, SSC, State PSC, Bank -whatever is written in your destiny.

So, you should prepare for the interview, irrespective of how your paper went. Because some interview questions are one and same irrespective of job-

  1. Questions on your graduation field and hobbies [maintain a diary on this]
  2. Socio-political-economic-cultural-geographical profile of your city, district and State. [dig google and maintain a file on this- otherwise it’ll be very cumbersome to prepare it within 10-12 days before the interview]
  3. The current affairs and your opinion on them. (FDI, Diesel price etc.) [this is a continuous process]

All the best.