1. Prologue
  2. Economy Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021
  3. Environment Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021
  4. Geography Answer Key Errors in Prelims-2021
  5. History Culture Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021
  6. PIN/Award/GK Answer Key Errors in Prelims-2021
  7. UPSC Canceled this Devilal Question
  8. Polity Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021
  9. Polity Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021
  10. Mismatch of 2 Dozen MCQs
  11. Why am I not taking names of coaching classes in Answerkey Mismatch?

Prologue

  • UPSC Has published the official answer key for Prelims-2021.
  • Here are the two dozen questions were one or more famous private answerkeys differed from the official UPSC answer key.
  • And 1 MCQ where UPSC itself cancelled the Question!
  • Green highlight means official answer key yellow highlight means where the coaching classes had different answer.

Economy Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.96)  India Government Bond Yields are influenced by which of the following?

  1. Actions of the United States Federal Reserve
  2. Actions of the Reserve Bank of India.
  3. Inflation and short-term interest rates

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. a) 1 and 2 Only
  2. b) 2 Only
  3. c) 3 Only
  4. d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Medium  to Tough🥵

Type:Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Bond yield is the amount of profit made by an investor in Bond investment.
  • RBI tries to influence the Bond Yield by buying/selling G-Sec in the Secondary market for example they tried to do it in the “operation twist”. So, #2 is right. Answer could be A/B/D.
  • If you want to cook “Birbal Khichdi i.e. Action X leads to Y leads to Z…” then actions of the US Feds also influence Bond Yields of Indian G-Sec Because the foreign investors will accordingly buy / sell / dump Indian government securities in the secondary market depending on the returns offered by the US feds on US Treasury Bonds & this will influence Indian Govt’s Bond yields. → 1 may be right.
  • Similarly, Inflation and short term interest rate may also Influence the investor to buy/sell/dump Indian government securities in the secondary market to move money elsewhere → 3 may be right. Then Answer could be “D”: All 3 statements correct
  • If UPSC examiner is asking about direct and immediate influence and not Birbal Khichdi then Answer “B”, ELSE answer could be “D”. Final judge UPSC official answer key to be published next year 2022 after Final result announced.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.97)  Consider the following

  1. Foreign Currency convertible bonds
  2. Foriegn Institutional investment with certain conditions
  3. Global depository receipts
  4. Non-resident external deposits

Which of the above can be included in Foriegn Direct Investments?

  1. a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. b) 3 Only
  3. c) 2 and 4
  4. d) 1 and 4

Difficulty : Tough🥵

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

Instrument Explanation FDI or NOT?
#1] Foreign Currency Convertible Bonds ·Previously in 2020, UPSC had asked a similar question on FDI.  FDI is associated with equity investment and ✋FDI word is not associated with debt investment.

·Therefore by default, Bond cannot be FDI. But Convertible Bond/Debenture could be converted to Equity (Shares) so, #1 should be right.

·I also cross checked with RBI Circular of 2012 and it’s correct.  → B and C eliminated.

 YES
2] Foreign Institutional investment with certain conditions ·Foriegn Institutional investment (FII) is Separate category, also  known as “FPI. It is not FDI by default. But here it says ‘with certain conditions’…. So, #2 may be right.I also cross checked with RBI Circular of 2012: if FII invest in convertible debentures, then it’s counted as FDI subject to certainX% limit so, #2 is correct. Yes
3] Global depository receipts (GDR) ·If Indian company issued GDR → foreigns indirectly invest in Indian shares so #3 could be FDI.

·Now just to cross check whether GDR is indeed FDI?- I checked with the RBI circular. Depository Receipts (DRs) such as ADR and GDR are treated as FDI- says RBI Circular of 2012.

 YES
Non resident external deposit (in Indian banks)  ·Indian bank may give such deposits as loans (debt) so #4 Cannot be termed as FDI so #4 shd be wrong.

·Some may argue what if such NRI using that bank account to invest in Indian shares then it could become FDI. But it’s birbal khichdi logic.

 NO
  • Thus By elimination we are left with ✅ right answer A) 1, 2 and 3.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.82)  With reference to Indian economy, demand pull-inflation can be caused/increased by which of the following?

  1. Expansionary policies
  2. Fiscal stimulus
  3. Inflation-indexing wages
  4. Higher – purchasing power
  5. Rising interest rates

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1, 2 and 4 Only
  2. b) 3, 4 and 5 Only
  3. c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only
  4. d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Difficulty : Easy🤩 by elimination

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

Rising loan interest rate will decrease the demand of goods and services and so it will decrease the demand pull inflation. Question requires us to find the factors that will increase the demand. Thus #5 (interest rate) is wrong, B/C/D are eliminated & we are left with Correct Option “A”.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.92)  With reference to the casual workers employed in India, consider the following statements:

  • All casual workers are entitled for Employees Provident Fund coverage.
  • All casual workers are entitled for regular working hours and overtime payment.
  • The government can by a notification specify that an establishment or industry shall pay wages only through its bank account.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  • a) 1 and 2 only
  • b) 2 and 3 only
  • c) 1 and 3 only
  • d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Medium to Tough.

Type: Contemporary 🗞 Third statement is in context of an amendment made in 2017 [4 years before exam!]

Explanation:

  • EPFO Act doesn’t does not differentiate between casual, contractual and regular employees. So, All types of workers are eligible/entitled for it. So, #1 is right
  • #2 is right as per Code on Wages
  • #3 right as per Payment of Wages Amendment 2017. In the aftermath of demonetisation in 2016, the government was trying to encourage bank transfer So this amendment was made in 2017.
  • So, pvt coaching wallas’s answer is option “D”: All 3 are correct.
  • However UPSC says “B”.

Environment Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.80)  Which of the following have species that can establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms?

  1. Cnidarians
  2. Fungi
  3. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • a) 1 and 2 Only
  • b) 2 and 3 Only
  • c) 1 and 3 Only
  • d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Tough🥵 requires knowledge of class 11-12 NCERT Biology and you can’t arrive at final answer until you know what is Cnidarians?

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Lichens: Lichens  are  symbiotic  Algae prepare food for fungi and fungi provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water for its partner. So close is their association that if one saw a lichen in nature one would never imagine that they had two different organisms within them.  → #2 is right.
  • CNIDARIA: Some of these species live in colonies (corals), while others have a solitary like–span (Hydra). Coral exhibit symbiosis with Algae. So, #1 is right.
  • NCERT Class11: “All protozoans are heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites.” If they live as parasites then symbiosis difficult. So, #3 is wrong. → Therefore, Correct Answer is “A” only 1 and 2.
  • Some webpages say that termites have a symbiotic relationship with protozoa that live in the termite’s gut → #3 is correct so Pvt coaching walla felt the answer is “D”] Only 1 and 2 and 3.
  • Final Answer A or D? well UPSC says D.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.90)  In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?

  • 1) Fern
  • 2) Litchen
  • 3) Moss
  • 4) Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  • a) 1 and 4 Only
  • b) 2 Only
  • c) 2 and 3
  • d) 1, 3 and 4

Difficulty :Tough🥵 Depending on which chapter of NCERT book you are reading, you may arrive at different answer.

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Since mosses form dense mats on the soil, they reduce the impact of falling rain and prevent soil erosion → #3 is wrong. we are 50:50 between A or B. Everything now depends on the validity of statement#2.
  • Lichens (#2) grow on any undisturbed surface–bark, wood, mosses, rock, soil, peat, glass, metal, plastic, and even cloth.ichens can absorb water through any part of their thalli and have no need of roots. According to, Pennsylvania University article.
  • Land without soil can support only very small primitive plants such as lichens and mosses that can cling onto a rock surface, says the book Essentials of Ecology Third Edition, 3rd Edition. So, Answer should be “C”: 2 and 3. UPSC Agrees!

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.75)  Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems, are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?

  • Brakes of motor vehicles
  • Engines of motor vehicles
  • Microwave stoves within homes
  • Power plants
  • Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  • a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 Only
  • b) 1, 2 and 4 Only
  • c) 3, 4 and 5 Only
  • d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Difficulty : Tough🥵

Type: Contemporary 🗞

Explanation:

  • They are formed and emitted from vehicle brake wear. → #1 is right
  • They are formed by in-cylinder melting of engine fragments → #2 is right.
  • They are found on the on leaf surface near power generating plants → #4 is right. → we are 50:50 between B or D.
  • I could not find definitive internet sources that mention microwaves or telephone lines as source of magnetite particle so presently the answer could be “B”, Although some coaching institutes in insist that answer could be “D”.
  • So what is the final answer? UPSC official answer key says B

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.87)  Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?

  1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment.
  2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment.
  3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • a) 1 and 2 Only
  • b) 2 and 3 Only
  • c) 1 and 3 Only
  • d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Medium🧐 to Tough🥵

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Arsenic a heavy metal is associated with copper, iron and silver ores. → #2 may be right.
  • Smelting of metals produce sulphur dioxide → #2 may be right.
  • I was unable to find Reliable source to validate #1 so it may be wrong.
  • So Answer: B] 2 and 3 only. UPSC agrees!

Geography Answer Key Errors in Prelims-2021

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.43)  with reference to the Indus river system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus direct. Among the following, which one is such river that joins the Indus direct?

  1. Chenab
  2. Jhelum
  3. Ravi
  4. Sutlej

Difficulty :  Tough🥵because of confusion between Chenab and Sutlej.

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Chenab empties into Satluj which finally meets Indus. So the correct answer is Sutlej. Some answer keys are giving Chenab as an answer depending on the interpretation of river linking. So the correct answer is “A” or “D”. Awaiting Official UPSC answer key.
  • So correct answer is “D”. UPSC Agrees!

History Culture Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.58)  With reference to Indian history, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Nizamat of Arcot emerged out of Hyderabad State.
  2. The Mysore Kingdom emerged out of Vijaynagara Empire.
  3. Rohilkhand Kingdom was formed out of the territories occupied by Ahmad Shah Durrani.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. a) 1 and 2
  2. b) 2 Only
  3. c) 2 and 3
  4. d) 3 Only

Difficulty : Medium🧐 to tough 🥵

Type: Theory 📚

👨‍🏫Explanation:

  • Carnatic State emerged Independent out of Hyderabad State due to the later Mughal polity- weakness → #1 is right.
  • Mysore Kingdom became independent from the Vijaynagar empire in the year 1612 → #2 is right
  • Rohilkhand’s Afghan rulers existed during Mughal reign and they had offered their services / alliance to Ahmed Shah Durrani in 3rd Battle of Panipat. So, Rohilkhand was not carved from territories of Durrani. → #3 is wrong.
  • UPSC official answer key says B.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.60)  Consider the following statements:

  1. 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
  2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. a) 1 Only
  2. b) 2 Only
  3. c) Both 1 and 2
  4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Tough🥵 Difficult to remember such dates.

Type: Current/Contemporary 🗞

👨‍🏫Explanation:

  • B- 2 Only is Correct
  • 21st February is declared to be the International Mother Language Day by UNESCO in 1999. UNESCO works in the cultural part and not UNICEF.
  • On, February 25, 1948, Dhirendranath Dutta had urged the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan (CAP) to recognise Bengali as one of the official languages but it was turned by Muhammad Ali Jinnah.
  • UPSC official answer key says B.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.52)  Consider the following statements:

  1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age 21.
  2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • a) 1 only
  • b) 2 only
  • c) both 1 and 2
  • d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Easy🤩

Type: Theory 📚

👨‍🏫Explanation:

  • Mont-Ford Reforms- Also known as Government of India Act, 1919- didn’t gave voting rights to ’’all’’ women. Only limited franchise was given during this time, viz. voters qualification/criteria was the reason behind not giving universal adult suffrage
  • Government of India Act, 1935- reservation of seats – system of weightage to Women Members
  • UPSC official answer key says B

PIN/Award/GK Answer Key Errors in Prelims-2021

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.6) Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:

  1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
  2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
  3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements are not correct?

  1. 1 and 2 Only
  2. 2 and 3 Only
  3. 1 and 3 Only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Tough🥵 Especially the second and third statement required testing of factual memory

Type: Contemporary 🗞 [Event older than one year asked.]

Explanation:

  • Government has mentioned that Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not to be considered as titles under Article 18 (1). Statement #1 is incorrect.
  • Padma Awards, suspended twice, from July 1977 to January 1980 and from August 1992 to December 1995. Statement #2 is incorrect.
  • Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum three in a particular year. Statement #3 is incorrect.
  • We are required to find wrong statements. So, Answer is “D”: 1, 2 and 3- All are wrong. UPSC official answer key agrees.

UPSC Canceled this Devilal Question

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.30)  Consider the following statements:

  1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
  2. In 1991, Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies
  3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • a) 1 Only
  • b) 2 Only
  • c) 1 and 3
  • d) 2 and 3

Official Answer Key: Dropped

Difficulty : Medium 🧐

Type: Contemporary 🗞

Explanation:

  • As per Section 33(7) of the Representation of People’s Act amendment in 1996, one candidate can contest from a maximum of two constituencies. So Statement 1 is incorrect.  → A and C eliminated. We’ve B or D left.
  • If a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. → It is suggested reform but not an existing rule So, Statement 3 is incorrect
  • If we eliminate 1 and 3 we are left with only option b.
  • In the 1991-Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. → Factual data – which is correct. Statement 2 is correct. (The two Constituency rule started from 1996, so in 1991- Devi lal could do from three seats).
  • So correct answer is “B”- This was claimed by the coaching institutes

however UPSC has cancel this question probably because

  1. Some sources say Devi Lal didn’t contest in 1991 from 3 seats, but in some other year.
  2. Some sources say Devi Lal contested in 1991 from 3 seats, but not all of them were Lok Sabha seats- some of them were Vidhan Sabha seats.
  3. Some expert say it was canceled due to translation errors. (although I didnt find any.)
  4. Anyways, what could be the reason for cancellation, I don’t think it is a productive use of time many more to keep digging the skeletons from the cupboard to find the right ‘reason’ why the question would have been canceled.

Polity Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.17) Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

  • a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government.
  • b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
  • c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
  • d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary

Difficulty : Tough 🥵 because open to multiple interpretation

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • As per NCERT, it refers to a political institution that represents a sovereign people who occupy a definite territory. So, Option A and B could be right.
  • Sovereign means independent of external control. So, “A” is more suitable than “B”.
  • Counter-argument: The Indian State has a democratic form of government. The government (or the executive) is one part of the State. The State refers to more than just the government and cannot be used interchangeably with it. Therefore, “B” is a more suitable answer than “A”.
  • Final Answer? UPSC says A is correct.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.16) Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

  • a) The independence of judiciary is safeguarded.
  • b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
  • c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
  • d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.

Difficulty : Medium 🧐

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • In a federal structure, the fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be unilaterally changed by one level of government. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution. Independent Judiciary is the prerequisite. So, the correct answer is “A”.
  • Counter-argument: In the federal system, the Union Legislature has an upper house / Senate / Rajya Sabha that draws members from States. So, the correct answer is “B”. As per official UPSC Answerkey
  • Final Answer? UPSC says A is correct.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.18) With reference to Indian Judiciary, consider the following statements:

  1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
  2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • a) 1 Only
  • b) 2 Only
  • c) Both 1 and 2
  • d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Easy🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Article 128 of the Constitution → The Chief Justice of India may, at any time, with the previous consent of the President, request any person who has held the office of a Judge of the Supreme Court to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court. So statement 1 is correct.
  • Article 226 Of the Constitution → Being A Court Of Record, High Court can review its own judgments. Statement 2 is correct.
  • So, correct answer is “C”- as per some Pvt answer keys
  • But Official UPSC answer key says “A”.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.27) We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?

  • As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
  • In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  • a) 1 Only
  • b) 2 Only
  • c) Both 1 and 2
  • d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Medium 🧐

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Parliamentary sovereignty is a principle of the UK constitution. It makes Parliament the supreme legal authority in the UK, which can create or end any law. Parliament of India is a creation of the Constitution. UK’s parliament  is more powerful than the Indian Parliament.  Statement 1 is correct.
  • 2017: For the first time in its nearly 70-year-long history, SC set up a permanent constitutional bench to hear cases related to constitutionality of laws. So, #2 should be correct.
  • Therefore, correct option “C”. UPSC Answer Key agrees.

✋Counter Argument: In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament can be referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. It is not a necessity. So #2 is wrong. Counter-ka-Counter argument = #2 is not saying “must / only”. so not wrong.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.11) Consider the following statements:

  • ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
  • ‘ Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
  • ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct:

  • a) 1 only
  • b) 3 only
  • c) 1 and 2
  • d) 2 and 3

Difficulty : Tough🥵 Not given in routine books, and subjected to multiple interpretation depending on how much time you spend Googling the answer

Type: Contemporary 🗞

Explanation:

  • The right to the city is an idea and a slogan first proposed by Henri Lefebvre in 1968. UN habitat conference – Right to city concept was proposed. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right. So statement 1 is correct. We are 50:50 between A or C.
  • ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. So statement 2 is correct.
  • Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city. This is practically difficult especially for public services like bus-stop, schools, health clinics etc. Statement 3 is incorrect.
  • So, the correct answer is “C”.
  • ✋Counter argument: Web resources do not categorically prove that there is an “agreed” right to city, they (international organizations) are only proposing to do so, and therefore first statement is wrong. Third statement should be right as per some of the court judgements so the answer should be “D”.
  • Official UPSC Answerkey says Answer is “D”.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.28) With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

  • N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
  • In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • a) 1 Only
  • b) 2 Only
  • c) Both 1 and 2
  • d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Tough🥵 Not given in routine preparation sources and not possible to memorise so many microscopic historic details in real life.

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is random General Knowledge. Ayyangar was part of the 7-member drafting committee of the Indian constitution appointed on August 29, 1947. Sh. N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, in his Report namely ‘Reorganization of the Machinery of Central Government’ in 1950 recommended the grouping of ministries, improvement in the capabilities of the personnel, and also in the working of the O&M Division. 1st ARC suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. So  Statement 1 is incorrect
  • The Department of Personnel was constituted in 1970 on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the cabinet secretary. Currently it is placed under PMO. So Statement 2 is the incorrect statement.
  • So, correct answer is “D”- as per Pvt Answerkey.
  • However, UPSC Official Answerkey says “B”.

Polity  Answerkey Errors in Prelims-2021

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.38)  In a pressure cooker, the temperature at which the food is cooked depends mainly upon which of the following?

  • 1) Area of the hole in the lid.
  • 2) Temperature of the flame
  • 3) Weight of the lid

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  • a) 1 and 2 Only
  • b) 2 and 3 Only
  • c) 1 and 3 Only
  • d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Tough🥵

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • By increasing the surface pressure on the liquid inside the closed cooker we can raise the cooking temperature. This pressure can be adjusted by changing the weight placed on the top of the cooker lid. → #3 is right.
  • The cooker lid is provided with the safety hole/valve so when the pressure crosses the safety limit, it prevents the cooker from bursting and causing an accident. #1 is not relevant for controlling temperature but safety of pressure. →#1 is wrong.
  • Therefore, Correct Answer is B] 2 and 3 only.
  • Counter-argument: #1 (size of hole) also matters in heating.So, #1 is also correct and Answer should be “D” as per some pvt answerkeys.
  • UPSC Official Answerkey says “C”.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.35) With reference to recent developments regarding ‘Recombinant Vector Vaccines’, consider the following statements:

  1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of these vaccines.
  2. Bacteria and viruses are used as vectors.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • a) 1 Only
  • b) 2 Only
  • c) Both 1 and 2
  • d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Medium🧐 to Tough🥵 While this type of vaccine was in newspapers but the particular information asked in MCQ requires further crosschecking from random websites.

Type: Current/Contemporary 🗞

Explanation:

Recombinant vector vaccines are bacteria or viruses that are genetically engineered to carry extra genes derived from a pathogen. So, both statements are right, Therefore, option “C” is correct.UPSC Official Answerkey agrees.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.36) In the context of hereditary diseases, consider the following statements:

  • Passing on mitochondrial diseases from parent to child can be prevented by mitochondrial replacement therapy either before or after in vitro fertilization of egg.
  • A child inherits mitochondrial diseases entirely from mother and not from father.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • a) 1 only
  • b) 2 only
  • c) Both 1 and 2
  • d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Tough🥵

Type: Contemporary 🗞 from a news item of 2016.

Explanation:

  • This is from the Three parent baby news topic from 2016. Basically the mother has faulty Mitochondrial DNA. so the baby will have a disease. So, to prevent it, you’ve to remove the mother’s egg’s nuclear material → transfer it to another woman’s egg, then fertilize that second woman’s egg with the father’s sperm.
  • So, statement#1 is wrong Because This step has to be done before fertilization.
  • This disease comes because of mother. → #2 is right.
  • So, Final Answer “B” : 2 Only – as per some pvt answerkeys.
  • UPSC Official Answerkey says “C”.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.39)  Consider the following:

  • 1) Bacteria
  • 2) Fungi
  • 3) Virus

Which of the above can be cultured in artificial/synthetic medium?

  • a) 1 and 2 Only
  • b) 2 and 3 Only
  • c) 1 and 3 Only
  • d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Tough🥵

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Media most commonly used for bacteria are nutrient agar. Option #1 correct.
  • Media most commonly used for fungi are potato dextrose agar and Sabouraud dextrose agar. Option #2 correct.
  • Viruses can’t be cultured in artificial medium due to lack of metabolic machinery of their own and depend totally on the host cell for replication. Option #3 is incorrect.
  • Therefore, the correct answer is “A”: 1 and 2 only.UPSC Answerkey agrees.

[CSP21-SET-C] Q.22) With reference to street-lighting, how to sodium lamps differ from LED lamps?

  • 1. Sodium lamps produce light in 360 degrees but it is not so in the case of LED lamps.
  • AS street-lights, sodium lamps have longer life span than LED lamps.
  • The spectrum of visible light from sodium lamps is almost monochromatic while LED lamps offer significant colour advantages in street lighting.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  • a) 3 only
  • b) 2 only
  • c) 1 and 3
  • d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Tough 🥵

Type: Theory 📚

Explanation:

  • Sodium lamps provide 360 degree light emitting. Whereas,LED lights tend to direct light downward, rather than a full 360 degrees. → #1 is right.
  • HPS Lights have good lifespans – around 14,000 hours – though this is significantly less than LEDs. LEDs last longer than any light source commercially available on the market. → #2 is wrong.
  • Monochromatic light means that the light has a single wavelength. The LED light is not monochromatic because it is made up of different wavelengths, therefore is polychromatic. Often, a combination of wavelengths is used to create different colors. → #3 is right.
  • Therefore, Correct Answer is “C”: 1 and 3. UPSC official Answerkey Agrees!

Mismatch of 2 Dozen MCQs

Q-SET-C KEYWORD Key Mrunal Famous Inst.#1 Famous Inst.#2 Famous Inst.#3 Famous Inst.#4 Famous Inst.#5 Famous Inst.#6 Famous Inst.#7 Official UPSC Ans Key
CSP21Q097 FDI A A A A B A A A A
CSP21Q096 Indian Bond Yield B/D D D D D D D D D
CSP21Q082 Demand-Pull inflation A A A A A D A A A
CSP21Q092 Causal Workers D D D D D D C D B
CSP21Q080 Symbiotic Relationship A/D D D D D D D D D
CSP21Q090 Survive without soil C C C C B D C C C
CSP21Q075 Magnetite Particles B/D D C D D D B D B
CSP21Q087 Copper smelting plants B B B B D B D B B
CSP21Q043 Indus River System D A A A D A A D D
CSP21Q058 Nizamat of Arcto, Mysore Kingdom,Rohilkhand Kingdom A B A A A A A A B
CSP21Q060 21st February, Bangla national language B B B B B C B B B
CSP21Q052 Montagu-Chelmsford,Reserved seats for women B/D B B B B B B B B
CSP21Q006 Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards D D D D D C D D D
CSP21Q017 State definition A/B A B A A A A A A
CSP21Q016 Federal character A/B A A A A A A A A
CSP21Q018 retired judge C C C C C C C C A
CSP21Q027 Parliamentary democracy C C C C C A C C C
CSP21Q030 Lok Sabha Election (Devilal) B B B B B B B B X
CSP21Q011 Right to the City C C D C C C D C D
CSP21Q028 Union Government Ayyangar D D D* C B/D C B C B
CSP21Q038 Pressure Cooker B/D C C C A A C D C
CSP21Q035 Recombinant Vector Vaccines C C C C C A C C C
CSP21Q036 Hereditary diseases B C B C C A A C C
CSP21Q039 Artifical/Synthetic Medium A A D A A A A A A
CSP21Q022 Sodium Lamps C C C C C C A C C

Why am I not taking names of coaching classes in Answerkey Mismatch?

  • To avoid faaltu ke Defamation cases because (कोई मुझपे बदनक्शी का दावा नहीं ठोके इसलिए)
  • Some institutes publish 1 Answer key then after a few days they publish revised answer key my analysis is based on their first answer key. (कुछ कोचिंग वाले दो चाबियाँ बनाते है।)
  • Some institutes delete the original answer key and publisher correct answer key after UPSC release is there answer key।(कुछ कोचिंग वाले अपनी क्षति पूर्ण आंसर की डिलीट कर देते हैं)
  • In some questions all the coaching institute have one answer, but UPSC has gone by a totally different interpretation (e.g. EPFO Casual workers) so I don’t feel criticising others. (कुछ तो ऐसे प्रश्न है जहां सभी कोचिंग वाले एक मत है लेकिन यूपीएससी के प्रोफ़ेसर का दिमाग कुछ अलग चला है, तो इसमें किसी एक कोचिंग वाले की कोई गलती नहि।)
  • UPSC itself is to be blamed for making open ended / vague questions and not releasing answerkey at earliest. if they do it, then there is no need for the coaching classes to release private answer keys!
  • Youtube gave me gold button award for crossing 10 lakh subscribers so, I need to be more civilized and graceful in my behavior. So, i’ll avoid namecalling, roasting and mud-slinging others. यूट्यूब ने मुझे स्वर्ण पुरस्कार दिया है इसलिए मुझे अब अपने तौर-तरीकों में ज्यादा शालीनता और गरिमा दिखानी चाहिए. लोगों के नाम लेकर उन पर कीचड़ उछालना अब मुझे शोभा नहीं देगा.