1. Analysis
  2. Cut offs for CPF/CAPF 2012 Exam
  3. History: Internal breakup
  4. Ancient
  5. Medieval
  6. Modern
  7. Polity internal breakup
  8. Polity-Static
  9. Polity- Current Based
  10. Rights Issue
  11. Environment Biodiverity
  12. Geography
  13. Economy, Yearbook
  14. International Relations, Persons in News/Sports/GK
  15. Science
  16. Aptitude

With this article, I conclude the Answerkeys for CPF/CAPF 2012 exam


Economy 6
Diplomacy 6
Yearbook 7
GK/Sports 9
Environment 10
Geography 13
Science 16
Polity 17
Aptitude 20
History 21
Total 125
  • Typical UPSC paper: Mix of static and current based questions with their peculiar toughness. But then again, you’re not required to solve 125/125 questions to pass the exam.
  • Topicwise breakup: Nothing really trend-breaker or trend-setter here.
  • While CPF’s difficulty level is same as earlier IAS (preliminary) exams but UPSC has yet to ‘evolve’ the question style for CPF questions, (like they did in CSAT-2012 i.e. not asking stupid questions on sports, awards, authors etc.)
  • Current affairs are important but Beyond a level, trivial GK of Current affairs, gives diminishing returns. For example they asked about profile/biodata of Gen. Singh or Suy Ki, so now let’s prepare biodata of Navy and Airforce chiefs and PM/Presidents of neighboring countries….. This time they asked about import values so let’s mugup export table etc from Economic survey. There is no end to ^this, but your memory and recalling power has.
  • Therefore, your energy is better utilized in the core areas: History, Aptitude, Physical Geography, Polity, Science  etc. Ofcourse even in those sections, some unusual/tough questions will come, but still the cost:benefit is higher than chasing trivial GK of current affairs.
  • Many questions could be solved through NCERTs and other std. reference books.
  • No question on Decision Making this time.
  • No question on ‘vulture-diclofenac’. Too bad so sad!

Cut offs for CPF/CAPF 2012 Exam

  • Prior to UPSC result: all internet forums, coaching classes- brimming with cut-off speculations.
  • D-Day: result is announced.
  • Mr.X: I had ticked ** question correctly, yet my name is not in the list. While other guy Mr.Y claims to have ticked very less questions compared to me yet his name is in the list! Something is fishy about result.
  • Mr.Y: No, there isn’t anything fishy about the result. You lost because of negative marking, plain and simple. Whatever you say is “grapes are sour.”
  • Mr.X: No I did not. I’ve calculated my score correctly. I will file R.T.I to UPSC to get my OMR sheets to prove it.

But UPSC continues its thuggery of not revealing the ‘cut-off’ or official answerkeys or OMR sheets until the whole recruitment process is complete (i.e. somewhere in late 2013).

R.T.Is and PILs keep getting filled, life goes on, Mr.X gives next attempt or gets settled somewhere else and leaves everything behind. Story is same whether you appear for IAS, IFoS, CPF or the APFC.

Moral of the story: There is no point in raising blood pressure over the cut offs- especially for UPSC. If you think you had prepared seriously, then whatever score you made, is a decent score- there is no need to loose sleep if random stranger 0n internet says he ticked 20 marks more than you.

You’ve played your part, now leave the rest in the hands of Almighty. If it is his will, you’ll get selected.

So, I’m going to repeat the advice of Dr.Osborne (main villain of first spiderman movie): “Commencement: the end of something. The start of something new.”

CPF written test has ended, therefore,

  • Prepare for Physical test (exercise should be done on regular basis- physical test or not test.)
  • Prepare for interview. (some hints given here click me)
  • Prepare for whatever next exam is coming: IBPS, RBI, UGC, CSAT.

Good luck.

Now here are the answerkeys for Central Police (armed) Service Exam 2012:

Wait a minute, if there is no point in worrying about cut-offs, then what’s the point in checking the answerkeys?

Ans. Because that’ll help you adapt/fine tune your strategy or study approach for next UPSC/State PSC exam.

History: Internal breakup

Ancient 2
Medieval 4
Modern (Freedom Struggle related) 15
Total 21


1. Rig veda

  1. reflects a naturalistic polytheism- belief in many gods who personified natural phenomenon
  2. the Gods were conceived of as anthropomorphic, i.e. as having  physical form similar to humans.

Correct statements

  1. only 1
  2. only 2
  3. both
  4. none

Both statements are correct, according to page 195 of A History of Ancient and Early Medieval India: From the Stone Age  By Upinder Singh.

Answer is (C)

2. The famous terra-cotta images of rivers Ganga and Yamuna from the Gupta period have been found at

  1. Ahichchhatra
  2. Kaushambi
  3. Rajghat
  4. Bhitargaon

Ganga and Yamuna, two life-sized terracotta images, originally installed in niches flanking the main steps leading to the upper terrace of the Shiva temple at Ahichhatra. belong to the Gupta period 4th century A.D. http://ccrtindia.gov.in/guptasculp.html

Answer is (A)


1.  Sayana, the famous commentator of the Vedas, flourished under the rule of

  1. Bahamani
  2. Golkonda
  3. Gajapati
  4. Vijaynagar

… He flourished under King Bukka I and his successor Harihara II, in the Vijayanagar Empire of South India. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Sayana

Ans D

2. Bandagan-i-khas during the rule of Delhi Sultans referred to the

  1. innkeepers
  2. royal slaves
  3. dak-carriers
  4. guards of the state stable

NCERT History Class 7, Chapter 3…. Iltutmish, favoured their special slaves purchased for military service, called bandagan in Persian.

So (B) is the answer.

3. Who among the following was described as Jagadguru by his subjects for his patronage of the Hindus in his State?

  1. Ibrahim Adil Shah of Bijapur
  2. Mahmud of Malwa
  3. Husain Shah of Bengal
  4. Mahmud Begara of Gujarat

It was Adil Shah of Bijapur so Ans A  (wiki)

4. Vidyapati Thakur, a contemporary of Chandidas (end of 14th century to early 15th century), was a native of

  1. Bengal
  2. Mithila
  3. Malwa
  4. Kashmir

…..Madhubani district of Mithila Region of India and Nepal (wiki)

Ans is (B)


Match the following.

Lord Cornwallis Partition of Bengal
Lord Wellesley Doctrine of Lapse
Lord Dalhousie Permanent Settlement
Lord Curzon Subsidary alliance

Correct combo

  1. Curzon=Bengal
  2. Wellesley=Subsidary alliance
  3. Delhousie=Doctrin of Lapse.
  4. Cornwallis=permanent settlement system.


Agrarian settlements Partions
Divide and Rule Famines and popular rebellions
Excluding Indians from Government jobs Increase of Home Charges
Wars and Conequests Alienation of Indian Middle class.
  • Britishers used to finance wars and conquests from Indian Revenue. Thus, Wars and Conquests lead to increase in “Home” charges.
  • Agrarian settlements=famines and rebellions. (Check NCERT History Class 12, Chapter 10)
  • Divide and rule=partition.
  • Exclude Indians from jobs= alienation of middle class.

3. Which one among the following statements about eminent freedom fighter and social activist Captain Lakshmi Sehgal, who passed away in Kanpur on 23rd July, 2012, is not correct?

  1. She was a close aide of Subhash Chandra Bose during the days of freedom movement
  2. She spearheaded several political, economic and social justice campaigns in the country
  3. She was a member of the Lok Sabha
  4. She was awarded the Padma Vibhushan.

A is correct.

B is also correct.

….in post-Independence India, her life as a member of the Communist Party of India (Marxist) and the All India Democratic Women’s Association (AIDWA), years that saw her in campaigns for political, economic and social justice.


D) is also correct, she got Padma award in 1998.

We are left with final answer: (C)

4. Who among the following used the term Drain of Wealth’ for the first time?

  1. Surendranath Banerjee
  2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  3. Dadabhai Naoroji
  4. Mahatma Gandhi

From the given options, it was Dadabhai Naoroji. (C)

5. Match List-1 with List-11 ands act the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

  1. Bhagat Singh
  2. Swami Sahajananda
  3. GK Gokhale
  4. SA Dange
  1. Congress
  2. HSRA
  3. All India Trade Union Congress
  4. All India Kisan Sabha

Bhagat Singh= HSRA

GK Gokghale =Congress

Swami Sahajananda=All India Kisan Sabha

Leaves SA Dange with Trade union.

6. Who among the following had written to the Viceroy, “The Congress is as much opposed to victory for Nazism as any British can be. But their objective cannot be carried to the extent of their participation in the war”?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. J. B. Kripalinl
  4. C. Rajagopalischari

Letter was sent by Gandhi. Page 109, Longman History & Civics Class 10 ICSE board.

Answer (B)

7. The Moplah peasant struggles took place in

  1. Darjeeling
  2. Andaman
  3. Malabar
  4. Chota Nagpur

Malabar region. Answer (C)

8. Alluri Sitarama Raju’s rebellion (1922-1924) took place in

  1. Chota Nagpur
  2. Gudem-Rampa Tract
  3. Bastar
  4. Nellore

He is associated with Rampa rebellion. (B) is closest match.

9. Which one among the following Princely States opted for a direct dealing with the Constituent Assembly in the year 1946 instead of through the Chamber of Princes?

  1. Baroda
  2. Travancore
  3. Junagadh
  4. Mysore

It was Baroda according to Indian Politics: Contemporary Issues And Concerns by Singh & Saxena

Assertion reasoning type


  1. both individually correct and 2 is correct explaination of 1
  2. both individually correct by 2 is not the correct explaination of 1
  3. 1 correct, 2 false
  4. 1 false, 2 correct.


  1. In India, tribal movements of 19th century resulted out of the process of land displacements and the introduction of forest laws.
  2. The Indian freedom movement resolved the problems faced by the tribals.

First is correct, Second statement is false (or debatable). Leaves us with answer choice (C).


  1. Economy of India in the 19th century came to a state of ruin, under East India company.
  2. The English East India Company’s acquisition of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry of India.

Both are correct, and 2 explains 1. Answer is (A)

12. Which of the following methods was/were incorporated by Gandhi?

  1. Petitioning to the British
  2. Village reconstruction.
  3. gheraos
  4. Fasts

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

I’m doubtful regarding Gheraos. Still looking for answer, perhaps (B).

13. Which of the following Princely States saw major movements over the period from 1930s to 1940s?

  1. Tripura
  2. Nilgiri
  3. Baroda
  4. Travancore

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1, 2 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Still looking for answer.

14. Which one among the following relates to a land revenue introduced by the English India Company?

  1. Pitt’s India Act
  2. Mahalwari Settlement
  3. Regulating Act
  4. Subsidiary Alliance

Britishers introduced two major land Revenue systems: Zamindari and Ryotwari.

Later they introduced modified version of Zamindari system in North India, under the name Mahalwari settlement. So, Answer (B)

15. “India would be far more reliable as a base for operations. Moreover the prospect of a settlement will be greatly enhanced by the disappearance of Gandhi, who had for years torpedoed every attempt at a settlement.” This statement was made by British in context of

  1. Kheda
  2. Civil Disobidience
  3. Quit India
  4. Non-Cooperation Movement

It was during Quit India Movement, when Britishers were expecting that Gandhi was going to die soon.

Bipin Chandra, Chapter 35

Polity internal breakup

Static (Constitution based) 11
Current based 2
Rights issue 4
Total out of 125 questions 17


1. Which of the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is/are correct?

  1. It is an alternative non-judicial channel.
  2. Victims of human rights violations can seek reparation through NHRC.
  3. It cannot grant immediate relief.
  4. It has the direct power of enforcement.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

The options are set in confusing manner.

Approach 1 Approach 2
NHRC has powers of a civil court. While inquiring into complaints under the Act. So it is quasi-judicial.NHRC can take issues suo-moto (by itself, even if noone approaches).So in that way, NHRC is not an ‘alternative non-judicial channel’.Hence (1) is incorrect and all options involving (1) are incorrect. That eliminates A,B,C. NHRC has no power to punish for violation of human rights, nor  to award any relief including monetary relief to the victim. And its recommendations are not binding. (Laxmikanth)So 3 is correct but 4 is incorrect.
Answer is (D) Confused no option!

Verdict: still searching for answer.

2. Public Interest Litigation falls within the jurisdiction of the High Court provided certain conditions are fulfilled. Which one among the following conditions is not accepted by the courts?

  1. Public is interested in vindication
  2. Enforcement of public Duty
  3. Courts can examine previous records of public servent.
  4. Personal injury or loss is an essential element.

Anyone can file PIL, even if he has suffered no Personal injury/loss because of the given issue.

So (D) is the answer.

3. 11th Schedule inserted by 73rd Amendment distributes powers between State Legislature and Pnachayats and lists 29 items. Which of the following items are listed in this 11th Sch.

  1. minor irrigation
  2. animal husbandary
  3. women and child Development
  4. fire service
  5. cattle pounds and prevention of cruelty to animals
  1. 123
  2. 145
  3. 234
  4. 345

According to M.Laxmikanth chapter on Panchayati raj

(1)Minor irrigation –yes, (3)Women child Development –yes

Animal husbandary –yes (2)

Besides, Cattle pound and Cruelty to animals, falls under 12th sch.

So answer is (A): 1,2,3 correct.

4. The constitutional principle of the ‘Basic Structure’ was invented by the

  1. Executive
  2. Judiciary
  3. Legislature
  4. Civil Society

Ans. SC gave the concept of Basic structure. (M.Laxmikanth’s Chapter on Amendment of the Constitution) so answer is (B)

5. consider these statements

  1. The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved and can be called to session any time at short notice.
  2. Under the Constitution of India, the law-making powers of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament are symmetrical.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
  • Statement 1 is correct. Special session of Rajya sabha can be called any time, e.g. if lok sabha is dissolved and there is need to approach emergency declaration.
  • But The law making powers are not symmetrical. (e.g. Rajya Sabha vs Lok Sabha in budget making, creation of new All India Services) So 2 is incorrect.
  • Answer is (A)

6. Consider following statements about parliamentary Committees

1. They’re a subset of council of ministers

2. Scrutiny of legislative and Constitutional amendment bills gets done in these Committees.

Which are corrct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

They’re not subset of council of ministers. So 1 is incorrect.

During second reading of the bill, it goes to Select Committee of parliament for scrutiny. So 2 is correct.

Answer (B) only 2.

7. Consider the following statements about Indian elections :

  1. The Constitution provides that elections to the House of the People and the Legislative  Assemblies of States are to be held on the basis of universal adult suffrage.
  2. The Constitution stipulates that there will be separate electoral rolls for Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2
  • 1 is correct.
  • Constitution empowers EC to prepare electoral rolls for parliament and state elections but it doesn’t say “Separate electoral rolls”. 2 is incorrect. (or debatable)
  • Answer (A)

8. Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution :

  1. In addition to the structure of the Government, it has also concerned itself with some aspects of a desirable civil society and economy.
  2. Through amendments in the year 1976, it has also outlined the fundamental duties of citizens along with their rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

1 is debatable based on how you interpretate DPSP and fundamental duties (particularly the ‘civil society’ part).

2 is correct. 42nd amendment 1976 added Part 5A and article 51A regarding fundamental duties.

Answer: still looking.

9. Which among the following, was not added to the concurrent list of Constitution of India, under the provisions of 42nd amendment 1976?

  1. Family planning
  2. Forest
  3. Education
  4. Railways

42nd amendment added Education, forest, family planning in Concurrent list.

Answer=Railways (D)

10. Consider the following territories which became part of India after 15th August, 1947 :

  1. Goa, Daman and Diu (liberated in 1961, became UT in 1967, Goa separate state in 1987)
  2. Pondicherry (aquired in 1954, became UT in 1962)
  3. Sikkim (1947 became Protectorate, 1974 became associate state)
  4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli (liberated in 1954, Became UT In 1961)

Which of the following is the correct chronological order (beginning with the earliest) of their becoming part of India?

  1. 1-2-3-4
  2. 3-1-4-2
  3. 4-1-2-3
  4. 2-1-4-3
Dadra n nager haveli was by 10th amend act,1961. goa, daman n diu by 12th amend act,1962. pondi by 14th amend act,1962. sikkim by 35th amend act,1974.
So Answer is C. (Courtsey: Arun mozhi)

11. Which one among the following statements about the States Reorganization Act is not correct?

  1. The Act dealt with the issue of redrawing of the boundaries of States
  2. It was passed in the year 1956
  3. It created fourteen States and six Union Territories
  4. The State boundaries were drawn for administrative convenience.

B and C are definatly correct.

Still Looking for verification of A and D.

  • Approach 1: It was not about merely “redrawing” of bountries, it deleted some states, it merged some states and designated some as UT. So A is false.
  • Approach 2: State boundries were drawn on linguisting basis.  So D is false.

Polity- Current Based

1. Overseas citizens of India (as per Overseas Citizenship of India Scheme as operational from December 2005) shall not be entitled to

  1. multiple entry, multipurpose lifelong visa to India
  2. exemption from reporting to police authorities for any length of stay in India
  3. parity with NRIs in financial, economic and educational fields except in the question of agricultural or plantation properties
  4. voting rights in India

OCI are not entitled to Voting rights. Answer (D)

2. The President of India has recently given approval to establish separate High Courts in three of the North-Eastern States of India. Which one among the following is not among them?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Manipur
  3. Meghalaya
  4. Tripura

Those three states are Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura. So answer is (A)

Rights Issue

1. Which one among the following treaties of human rights was signed but not yet ratified by India

  1. International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
  2. International Convention on the Elimination of all Forms of Racial Discrimination
  3. Convention on the Political Rights of Women
  4. United Nations Convention against Torture

India is yet to ratify United Nations Convention against Torture. (as of 25th May 2012)

Answer (D)

2. As part of a framework of human rights law, all human rights are

  1. interdependent
  2. interrelated
  3. indivisible

which of them are correct?

  1. 123
  2. 23
  3. 13
  4. 2

As part of the framework of human rights law, all human rights are indivisible, interrelated and interdependent. http://www.unicef.org/crc/index_framework.html

Answer (A) 1,2 ans 3 all correct.

3. Consider the following statements about the Convention on the Rights of the Child :

  1. This is an international treaty, which recognizes the human rights of children up to the age of 14 years.
  2. It constitutes a common reference against which progress in meeting human right standards for children can be assessed and results compared.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Convention on the Rights of the Child is an international treaty that recognizes the human rights of children, defined as persons up to the age of 18 years. So statement 1 is false.

Second statement is correct: http://www.unicef.org/crc/index_30229.html

Answer (B) only 2.

4. The World Conference on Human Rights that affirmed the universal declaration of rights and launched ambitious plan of action was held in

  1. Vienna (1993)
  2. Geneva (1996)
  3. New York (2000)
  4. Berlin (2002)

It was Vienna 1993. http://www.un.org/en/development/devagenda/humanrights.shtml

Answer (A)

Environment Biodiverity

Given on this link



Given on this link: https://mrunal.org/2012/11/answerkey-environment-biodiversity-geography-questions-upsc-cpf-capf-2012-all-booklets.html#192

Economy, Yearbook

Given on this link: https://mrunal.org/2012/11/answerkey-economy-yearbook-cpf-capf-2012-booklet-a-b-c-d-upsc.html

International Relations, Persons in News/Sports/GK

Given on this link: https://mrunal.org/2012/11/answerkey-international-relations-persons-in-newspin-misc-gk-from-upsc-capf-cpf-2012-exam.html


Given on this link: https://mrunal.org/2012/11/answerkey-science-mcqs-upsc-cpf-capf-2012-cutoff.html


Given on this link: https://mrunal.org/2012/11/answerkey-aptitude-maths-reasoning-of-upsc-cpfcapf-2012-with-explanation-for-all-booklets-cutoffs.html

That’s all.