[Polity] 100 Mock MCQ Questions from the Static portion, Constitution of India

1. Instructions
2. Question 1 to 20
3. Question 21 to 40
4. Question 41 to 60
5. Question 61 to 80
6. Question 81 to 100
7. Answers

Instructions

• 100 questions worth 2 marks each = total 200 marks.
• Penalty for wrong answer= Minus 0.67 (=1/3^rd of the mark allotted to correct answer.)
• time limit 2 hours
• You might want to revise Laxmikanth first before attempting these ;)
• If you want blank answersheet for MCQs, click me

Question 1 to 20

1. In which of the following case/s the six rights guaranteed by article 19 can be suspended?

1. External Aggression.
2. Internal Emergency.
3. When Martial Law is in force.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

2. Which of the following rights is/are available to foreigners in India.

1. Right to Education.
2. Right to Information.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

3. Article 21 declares that –

“No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”

The protection under article 21 is:

1. Against arbitrary legislative action.
2. Against arbitrary executive action.
3. Both A & B.
4. None.

4. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Right to Information is a fundamental right enshrined in article 19 (1) of the constitution.
2. Supreme Court of India is not under the purview of RTI act.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

5. Article 32 confers the right to remedies for the enforcement of the FR of an aggrieved citizen. Consider the following statements w.r.t article 32.

1. Parliament can suspend this right during national emergency.
2. Only SC shall have the power to issue writs for the enforcement of any of the FR.

Correct statement/s is/are:

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None

6. Which of the following right/s is/are enshrined in Article 21 – “No person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law.”

1. Right to speedy trial.
2. Right against delayed execution.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None

7. Which of the following writs can be issued against administrative authorities?

1. Prohibition, Certiorari & Mandamus.
2. Certiorari & Mandamus.
3. Prohibition & Mandamus.
4. Prohibition & Certiorari.

8. The directive principles were made non – justiciable and legally non – enforceable because:

1. The country did not possess sufficient financial resources to implement them.
2. There was widespread backwardness in the country that could stand in the way of implementation.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None

9. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.

1. The directive principles are meant to establish Political Democracy.
2. The directive principles are meant to establish Social Democracy.
3. The directive principles are meant to establish Economic Democracy.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

10. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct.

1. Fundamental Rights enjoy legal supremacy over Directive principles.
2. The parliament can amend the Fundamental Rights for implementing the directive principles.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

11. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment bill.

1. Prior permission of President is required before introducing the constitutional amendment bill in parliament.
2. President must give his assent to the bill if duly passed by both houses.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None

12. The emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of Governor can be altered by:

1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by simple majority of Parliament.
2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of Parliament.
3. A Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by special majority of the Parliament and ratified by half of the state legislatures.
4. By a normal legislative process that does not require Constitutional Amendment.

13. Which of the following is/are federal feature/s of our constitution.

1. Supremacy of the Constitution.
2. Rigid Constitution.
3. Independent Judiciary.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

14. Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.

1. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the executive power rests with the states.
2. In respect to matters enumerated in the concurrent list, the legislative power rests with the centre.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

15. Which of the following statements are true about Centre – State relations.

1. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) the center can give direction to a state on any matter.
2. During the proclamation of emergency (Article 352) President can modify the constitutional distribution of revenues between the Centre & the states.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

16. Which of the following statements are correct.

1. The chairman and members of state PSC are appointed by the Governor, but can be removed only by the President.
2. The state Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor but can be removed only by the President.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

17. Which of the following statement is correct with regard to Proclamation of Emergency.

1. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority.
2. Resolution approving & disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
3. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a simple majority.
4. None of these.

18. Which of the following situation/s will be proper to impose Presidents rule in a state (Article 356).

1. Where after general elections to the assembly, no party secures a majority.
2. Serious maladministration in the state.
3. Stringent financial exigencies of the state.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

19. Which of the following situation/s are correct with regard to Proclamation of Financial Emergency (Article 360).

1. It can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of the parliament for every six months.
2. A resolution approving the proclamation of financial emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by simple majority.
3. The President may issue directions for reduction of salaries and allowances of Supreme Court and High Court Judges.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

20. The Electoral College for President’s election consist of:

1. Elected members of both the houses of parliament.
2. Elected members of the legislative assemblies.
3. Elected members of all Union Territories.

1. 1.
2. 2 & 3.
3. 1 & 2.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

Question 21 to 40

21. When the offices of both Speaker and Deputy Speaker falls vacant –

1. The members of Lok Sabha immediately elect a Speaker.
2. The senior most willing member of Lok Sabha becomes the speaker.
3. The President appoints any member of Lok Sabha as speaker.
4. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha presides over till the next speaker is elected.

22. With Regard to Constitutional Amendment Bill –

1. The President can reject the bill but cannot return the bill.
2. The President cannot reject the bill but can return the bill.
3. The President can neither reject the bill nor return the bill.
4. The President can either reject the bill or return the bill.

23. The correct statement/s with regard to Ordinance making power of President is/are –

1. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend tax laws.
2. The President cannot promulgate an ordinance to amend the constitution.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

24. The Vice President can be removed from office before completion of his term in which of the following manner?

1. She/he can be impeached in similar manner as President.
2. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by special majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
3. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by simple majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.
4. A Resolution of Rajya Sabha passed by an absolute majority and agreed to by the Lok Sabha.

25. The ‘Council of Ministers’ does not consist of:

1. Deputy Ministers.
2. Parliamentary Secretaries.
3. Deputy Chairman – Planning Commission.

1. 1, 2 & 3.
2. 2 only.
3. 3 only.
4. None of these.

26. The Representatives of states & UT in the Rajya Sabha are elected by:

1. The members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assembly only.
3. The system of proportional representation by single transferrable vote.
4. The system of proportional representation by List.

1. 1 & 3.
2. 1 & 4.
3. 2 & 3.
4. 2 & 4.

27. Which of the following criteria is laid down by the constitution for a person to be chosen a member of parliament:

1. If a candidate is to contest a seat reserved for SC / ST, he must be a member of a SC / ST in any state or Union Territory.
2. He/she must not have been punished for preaching and practicing social crimes such as untouchability, dowry & sati.
3. He/she must not have any interest in government contracts, works or services.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1, 2, & 3.
4. None of these.

28. Which of the following statements are correct.

1. If a MLA is elected to be a MP, his seat in parliament becomes vacant if he does not resign his seat in the state legislature within 14 days.
2. If a person is elected to two seats in a house, he should exercise his option for one. Otherwise both seats become vacant.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

29. The office of the ‘Whip’ is mentioned in:

1. Constitution of India.
2. Rules of the house.
3. In a separate Parliamentary Statute.
4. None.

30. The office of the Leader of the opposition is mentioned in:

1. Constitution of India.
2. Rules of the house.
3. A separate Parliamentary Statute.
4. None.

31. When the Lok Sabha is Dissolved:

1. A bill passed by Lok Sabha pending in Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
2. A bill pending in Rajya Sabha & not passed by Lok Sabha does not lapse.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

32. A minister who is not a member of either house (Note: A person can remain a minister for six months, without being a member of either house of parliament):

1. Can participate in the proceedings of Lok Sabha only.
2. Can participate in the proceedings of Rajya Sabha only.
3. Can participate in the proceedings of either house of parliament.
4. Cannot participate till he becomes a Member of either house of parliament.

33. Consider the following statements with regard to Calling Attention motion and Zero Hour:

1. Both are Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure.
2. Both are not mentioned in the rules of procedure.
3. Only Zero hour is Indian innovation.
4. Only Zero Hour is not mentioned in the rules of procedure.

The correct statements is/are:

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 3 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1 & 4 only.

34. Which of the following motion/s if passed leads to the defeat of the government:

1. Censure Motion.
2. Cut Motion.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

35. The decision whether a bill is money bill or not is decided by the speaker, this decision cannot be questioned by:

1. Any court of law.
2. Lok Sabha.
3. President of India.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 2 only.
4. None of these.

36. Which of the following condition may lead to the resignation of the government:

1. Defeat of an ordinary bill introduced by a minister.
2. Defeat of a money bill.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

37. Which of the following is/are correct:

1. A Money bill can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
2. A Money bill is also a Financial Bill.
3. All Financial bills can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of these.

38. Which of the following Expenditure is/are the expenditure ‘Charged’ on the Consolidated fund of India:

1. Emoluments and allowances of President & Vice President.
2. Salaries, allowances and pensions of the Judges of the Supreme Court & high court.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

39. Which of the following qualification/s is/are laid down by the constitution for a person to be appointed as the Governor of a state:

1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. Must have completed the age of 35 years.
3. He shall not belong to the state where he is appointed.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of the above.

40. Which of the following officials take the Oath that has the following lines: “To preserve protect and defend the constitution”

1. President.
2. Governor.
3. Chief Justice of India.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. None of the above.

Question 41 to 60

41. Which of the following situation will bring about the collapse of the council of ministers of a state.

1. Resignation by Chief Minister.
2. Death of Chief Minister.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

42. Which of the following statements are correct:

1. President can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LS.
2. Governor can nominate 2 members from the Anglo – Indian community if not adequately represented in LA.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

43. When in a bicameral legislature, an ordinary bill, which has originated in the assembly is rejected by the council:

1. Will be considered in a joint sitting to resolve the disagreement.
2. The assembly can override the council by passing the bill for the second time with or without any amendments.
3. The council does not have power to reject any bill that has originated in the assembly and hence the bill is deemed to have passed.
4. The bill ends and becomes dead.

44. Chief Justice of High court is appointed by:

1. The President after consultation with the CJI.
2. The President after consultation with the CJI & Governor of state.
3. The Governor on the recommendation of President who in turn consults the CJI.
4. The President after consultation with the Governor of the state & a collegium of two very senior SC judges headed by CJI.

45. Which of the following statements are correct:

1. The High court cannot issue writs to any person outside its territorial jurisdiction.
2. An aggrieved person can approach the Supreme Court directly against the decision of a tribunal.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

46. Correct statements with regard to Panchayati Raj Institutions are:

1. The people directly elect all members of Panchayat at the village, intermediate and district levels.
2. Governor can remove the State Election Commissioner on the recommendation of the State Legislature.
3. The 73^rd Amendment act of 1992 (PRI Act) is applicable to all states except J&K.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 3 only.
3. 1, 2 & 3.
4. 2 & 3 only.

47. Corrects statement/s with regard to UTs is/are:

1. The parliament can make laws on any subject of three lists for the UT except Delhi and Puducherry.
2. The Lt. Governor of Delhi is not empowered to promulgate ordinances.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

48. Corrects statement/s with regard to Election Commission is/are:

1. The constitution debars the retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the government.
2. The election commission is not concerned with the elections to state legislatures, for this the constitution provides for a separate state election commission.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

49. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct with regard to Joint State Public Service Commission (JSPSC):

1. President can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned.
2. JSPSC will be considered as a constitutional body with all the powers of a SPSC.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

50. Which of the following are quasi judicial bodies:

1. Finance Commission.
2. Central Vigilance Commission
3. National Human Rights Commission.
4. Central Information Commission.
5. Competition Commission of India.
6. Union Public Service Commission.
7. National Commission for SCs.

1. All except 1, 2 & 6.
2. All except 2, 4 & 6.
3. All except 6.
4. None of the above options are correct.

51. Which of the following is/are not the functions of National Commission for SCs:

1. To advise on the planning process of socio economic development of the SCs.
2. To investigate all matters relating to OBCs.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

52. Which of the following official/s is/are appointed by the President by Warrant under his hand and seal.

1. CAG.
2. Chairperson of National Commission of SCs.
3. Attorney General of India.
4. CVC

1. 1, 2 & 4 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

53. Which of the following funds/authorities/bodies can be audited by CAG:

1. Consolidated funds of India, States & UTs having legislative assembly.
2. Contingency funds of India.
3. Public account of States.
4. Receipts and expenditures of PPP.
5. Local bodies.

1. 1, 2 & 3 only.
2. 1, 2 & 5 only.
3. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
4. All.

54. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:

1. He/she is the highest law officer of the country.
2. He/she can be removed by the President on same grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the SC.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

55. Which of the following statement/s is/are true with regard to the Attorney General of India:

1. He/she can be a member of a Parliamentary committee.
2. He/she is debarred from private legal practice.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

56. Which is the correct order for approval of 5 year plans:

A.    Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet  – Parliament .

B.     Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC – Parliament .

C.     Planning Commission – NDC – Cabinet.

D.    Planning Commission – Cabinet – NDC.

57. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to NHRC.

1. NHRC is neither a constitutional body nor a statutory body.
2. After their tenure Chairman & members are not eligible for further employment under the central or state government.
3. Its recommendations are binding on the concerned government or authority.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

58. Members of selection committee for the selection of chairman of NHRC consists of:

1. PM.
2. Speaker.
3. Deputy Chairman of RS.
4. Leaders of the opposition in LS.
5. Leaders in the opposition in RS.
6. Chief Justice of India.
7. Home minister.
8. Minister of Social Justice & Welfare.

1. All except 7.
2. All except 7 & 8.
3. All except 6 & 8.
4. None of the above options are correct.

59. Which of the following statements are correct:

1. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Election Commissioner.
2. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Justice of High Court.
3. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Vigilance Commissioner are similar to those of the Chairman of UPSC.

1. 1 & 3 only.
2. 1 & 2 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

60. Which of the following articles are correctly matched:

1. Election Commission – Article 338.
2. Finance Commission – Article 280.
3. National Commission for SCs – Article. 324
4. CAG – Article 148.
5. Attorney General of India – Article 76.

1. All except 1 & 5.
2. All except 1 & 3.
3. All except 2 & 5.
4. None of the above options are correct.

Question 61 to 80

61. The Jurisdiction of CAT extends to:

1. Secretarial staff of Parliament.
2. Civilian employees of Defense Services.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

62. My friend described a tribunal in the following manner: The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice.

He/she is probably referring to:

1. Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT).
2. National Green Tribunal (NGT).
3. He/she is either referring to CAT or to NGT.
4. He/she is neither referring to CAT nor to NGT.

63. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Right to Vote is not a FR but a Constitutional right.
2. Prisoners and under trials in India do not have the Right to Vote.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

64. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. If somebody is convicted for some offence and he is sentenced to imprisonment for 3 years he cannot contest elections.
2. A person cannot contest from more than two constituencies for a Lok Sabha/Vidhan Sabha election.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

65. Which of the following provisions of the constitution reveal the secular character of the Indian State:

1. The state shall not deny to any person equality before the law.
2. No religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution maintained by the state.
3. The state shall endeavour to secure for all citizens a uniform Civil Code.
4. Any section of the society shall have the right to conserve its distinct language.

1. 1, 2, 3 only.
2. 2 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4.

66. Which of the following feature/s of the constitution of India has/have been borrowed from GOI Act 1935:

1. Office of the Governor.
2. Emergency Provisions.
3. Legislative Procedure.
4. Bicameralism.
5. Federation with a strong center.

1. 1, 2 & 4 only.
2. 1, 3, 4 & 5 only.
3. 1 & 2 only.
4. None of the above options are correct.

67. Which of the following term/s was/were added by the 42^nd Amendment act in our Preamble:

1. Socialist.
2. Secular.
3. Republic.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 1 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

68. Which of the following statements are incorrect:

1. The Preamble is a prohibition on the powers of the legislature.
2. Preamble is not a part of the constitution.
3. Preamble cannot be amended, as it is a part of the basic structure of the constitution.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

69. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct:

1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state without amending the constitution as mentioned in article 368.
2. Resolution of boundary dispute between India and another country does not require constitutional amendment.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

70. Which of the following subject/s is/are enumerated in the concurrent list:

1. Actionable wrongs.
2. Education.
3. Protection of wild Animals and Birds.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 2 & 3 only.
3. 1 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3.

71. Article 14 says that the state shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws within the territory of India. Which of the following statements is/are true with regard to article 14.

1. Equality before the law is a negative concept whereas equal protection of law is a positive concept.
2. The concept of equality before the law is of British origin whereas equal protection of law is of American origin.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

72. Which of the following statements is/are true:

1. High court can refuse to exercise its writ jurisdiction.
2. Territorial jurisdiction of SC for the purpose of issuing writs is wider than that of a High Court.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

73. Which of the following statement with regard to Directive Principles is/are correct:

1. Courts cannot declare a law violative of any of the Directive Principles as unconstitutional and invalid.
2. Courts can uphold the validity of a law on the ground that it was enacted to give effect to a directive.

1. 1 only.
2. 2 only.
3. Both.
4. None.

74. Which of the following schedules can be amended by simple majority of Parliament.

1. Second Schedule.
2. Fifth Schedule.
3. Sixth Schedule
4. Seventh Schedule.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3 only.

75. In which of the following cases parliament can make laws in any matter enumerated in the state list.

1. During National Emergency.
2. During Presidents Rule.
3. To Implement International Agreements.

1. 1 only.
2. 1 & 4 only.
3. 2 & 3 only.
4. 1, 2 & 3 only.

76. Article 358 & 359 describe the effect of a National Emergency on the Fundamental right. Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Article 358 & 359.

1. Article 358 operates only in the case of External emergency and not in the case of Internal emergency.
2. Article 359 operates in case of both External & Internal emergency.
3. Article 358 suspends FR under article 19 for the entire duration of emergency.
4. Article 358 extends to the entire country whereas article 359 may extend to entire country or part of it.

1. 1 & 2 only.
2. 1, 2 & 3 only.
3. 2, 3 & 4 only.
4. 1, 2, 3 & 4.

77. Choose the correct statements from below:
    1. The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step by British govt to regulate the East India Company.
    2. The Pitt’s India Act setup the Supreme Court in Calcutta.
    3. The Charter Act of 1833 first recognized the company’s territories in India as British possessions.
    4. Pitt’s India Act created the Board of Control to look after political affairs.

1. Only a,b,c is correct.
2. Only a,c,d is correct.
3. Only a,d is correct.
4. All are correct.

78. Correct statement
    1. The Pitt’s India Act created Board of Control to manage political affairs.
    2. The Pitt’s India Act created the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong

79. Choose the correct answer
    1. Charter Act of 1833 created the post Governor General of India.
    2. Charter Act, 1833 deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras their legislative powers.
    3. Charter Act, 1853 introduced open competitive system for recruitment of civil servants.
    4. Macaulay Committee on the Indian Police Service was formed in 1854 and it drafted the Indian Police Act,1861.

1. Only a,b is correct.
2. Only a,c is correct.
3. Only a,b,c is correct.
4. a,b,c,d is correct.

80. The 15 member Council of India was setup under which act?
    1. Indian Councils Act,1861
    2. Indian Councils Act, 1892
    3. Government of India Act,1858.
    4. Indian Councils Act,1909

Question 81 to 100

81. The first person to be inducted into the Viceroy’s Executive Council was:
    1. Dadabhai Naoroji
    2. Sachichidanand Sinha
    3. Satyendra Prasad Sinha
    4. Satyendranath Tagore

82. Correct Statement?
    1. The Minto-Morley reforms were enacted through the Indian Councils Act,1919.
    2. Lord Morley was the Secretary of State and Lord Minto was the Viceroy.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong

83. correct statement?
    1. The Council of India was formed through the Government of India Act,1858.
    2. The Council of India was abolished through the Government of India Act, 1935.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong

84. Correct statement?
    1. The Interim Government members formed in 1946 were members of Viceroy’s Executive Council.
    2. The President of the Viceroy’s Executive Council was the Viceroy and Vice-President of the Council was Jawaharlal Nehru in the Interim Government.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong

85. From which of the following areas, were members drawn to the Constituent Assembly, as members drawn from Chief Commissioner’s provinces?
    1. Delhi and British Baluchistan
    2. Ajmer-Merwara
    3. Coorg
    4. All of the above

86. Correct statement?
    1. The Constituent Assembly was a sovereign body.
    2. The Constituent Assembly was a legislative body apart from constitution making body.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong

87. Correct Statement?
    1. The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Sachichiadand Sinha when it met as a legislative body.
    2. The Constituent Assembly was chaired by Rajendra Prasad when it met as constitution making body.
    3. Both correct
    4. Both wrong

88. Correct Statement?
    1. The Universal  Adult Franchise is guaranteed under the constitution.
    2. The 61^st amendment brought the age for voting to 18 years.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
89. Correct Statement?
    1. The 73^rd and 74^th amendment brought in changes in the levels of government.
    2. From a 2-tier government, it changed it to a 4-tier government, bringing a new level with each amendment.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
90. At the time of enactment of constitution, the provisions which enabled a secular state were:
    1. Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
    2. Fundamental Rights and DSP
    3. Fundamental Rights only
    4. Directive Principles of State policy only
91. The feature of Indian constitution borrowed from South African constitution is:
    1. Procedure established by law
    2. Procedure for amendment of constitution and election of Rajya Sabha members
    3. Method of election of President
    4. Joint Sitting of the Parliament
92. The words justice in the form of social, economic and political justice present in the Preamble has been taken from
    1. American Revolution
    2. French Revolution
    3. Russian Revolution
    4. None of the above
93. The terms not introduced in the Preamble through the 42^nd amendment are:
    1. Socialist
    2. Secular
    3. Integrity
    4. None of the above
94. Which case determined that the Preamble is a part of the constitution
    1. Berubari Union case
    2. Kesavananda Bharati case
    3. Golaknath case
    4. Minerva Mills case
95. Correct Statements?
    1. Originally the constitution had 14 languages in the 8^th schedule.
    2. Currently there are 22 languages with the last amendment being the 92^nd amendment.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
96. Correct Statements?
    1. The Ninth Schedule was added to protect laws and legislations from judicial review.
    2. The Supreme Court held that laws added after April 24h,1973 can be reviewed.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong
97. Correct Statements?
    1. Article 2 of the constitution gives the right to the government to create new states into the Union of India which are not part of India already.
    2. Article 3 gives the power to the government to change the boundaries of the state within India.
    3. both correct
    4. both wrong

98. Consider following statements

1. Chattisgarh was formed by the Uttar Pradesh Reorganization Act.
2. Himachal Pradesh was first UT to become a State
3. Manipur was the first to become a UT

choice

1. Only a and b correct.
2. Only b and c correct.
3. Only a and c correct
4. all correct.

99. Correct Statement

1. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions for Anti-Defection.
2. Originally the tenth schedule was formed related to Sikkim but was repealed later after Sikkim was made a state.
3. Both are correct
4. Both are wrong.

100. Which of the following states joined India after a referendum of its people
     1. Junagarh
     2. Sikkim
     3. Both a & b
     4. None of the above.

Answers

Courtesy: These Question-answers were setup by Mr. Palas Nuwal (1-77), Mr. Shiva Ram (78-100).

1. C
2. A – RTI available to Indian citizens only.
3. C
4. A – SC is under the ambit of RTI.
5. D – Only President can suspend this right during national emergency. HC can also issue writs for enforcement of FR.
6. C
7. B – Prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. It is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or bodies.
8. C
9. B – FR establishes political democracy.
10. C – Minerva Mills case (1980) – For further explanation refer Laxmikanth 8.7
11. B
12. A – Second schedule – Simple majority only.
13. D
14. A – Legislative power rests with both whereas executive power rests with state.
15. C
16. C
17. D – Resolution approving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by either house of parliament by a special majority. Resolution disapproving the proclamation of emergency is to be passed by LS only with simple majority.
18. A – Refer Bommai case (1994)
19. B – Once approved by both the houses of parliament, the financial emergency continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
20. C – Elected members of the legislative assemblies of the UT Delhi & Puducherry only.
21. C
22. C
23. B – An ordinance can alter or amend a tax law however it cannot be issued to amend the constitution.
24. D
25. D – Deputy Chairman of PC is given Cabinet rank.
26. C – The representatives of each State and two Union territories are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State and by the members of the Electoral College for that Union Territory, as the case may be, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. The Electoral College for the National Capital Territory of Delhi consists of the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of Delhi, and that for Puducherry consists of the elected members of the Puducherry Legislative Assembly.
27. D – All these criteria are laid down in the Representation of People Act 1951 & Not in the constitution.
28. C – See Laxmikanth – Page 22.6 – Double Membership.
29. D
30. C – Refer Laxmikanth – Page 22.13 – Under the head ‘Whip’.
31. B
32. C – Refer Laxmikanth – Page 22.15.
33. D
34. B
35. D – Cannot be questioned by anybody.
36. C
37. B
38. A – Note: There is no emolument for Vice President – As Chairman of RS, his salaries and allowances are charged on Consolidated Fund of India. Only the pensions of the Judges of High Court are charged on the consolidated fund of India.
39. B
40. B
41. C
42. A – Governor can nominate only one.
43. B
44. D
45. A
46. A – 2. The act does not apply to the states of J&K, Nagaland, Meghalaya, & Mizoram and certain other areas. 3. SEC can be removed on like manner as a judge of HC.
47. D – 1. This power also extends to Puducherry & Delhi. 2. Lt. Governor is empowered to promulgate ordinances during recess of the assembly.
48. D
49. D – Parliament can provide for a JSPSC on the request of the state legislatures concerned. JSPC will be a statutory body and not constitutional.
50. C
51. D – It looks into all matters related to OBCs and Anglo Indian community too.
52. A – Attorney General – Pleasure of President.
53. D
54. A
55. A
56. B
57. B – It was created by the Protection of Human rights Act 1993, Statutory Body. Recommendations are not binding.
58. C
59. A – The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the State Information Commissioner are similar to those of the Chief Secretary of State Government.
60. B
61. B
62. C
63. C
64. C
65. D
66. C
67. A
68. D
69. B
70. D
71. C
72. C
73. C
74. D
75. D
76. D
77. C) a,d is correct.
78. A.
79. C) a,b,c is correct.
80. c) Government of India Act,1858.
81. c) Satyendra Prasad Sinha
82. B) b is only correct.
83. C) Both are correct.
84. Both are correct.
85. d) All of the above.
86. c) Both are correct.
87. B) b is correct.
88. C) Both are correct.
89. A) a is correct
90. b) Fr and DSP
91. B
92. c) Russian Revolution
93. d) None of the above
94. b) Kesavananda Bharathi case
95. C) Both are correct
96. C) Both are correct.
97. C) Both are correct
98. B only B and C correct.
99. C) Both are correct.
100. C) Both a & b.