[Answerkey] CAPF-2013: Polity related MCQs solved with explanation

1. Analysis: Polity Answerkey CAPF
2. Current
3. Static/Theory
   1. Creation of New state
   2. Parliament related
   3. Budget related
   4. FR/DPSP related
   5. Language
   6. Council of ministers
   7. Tribunals

Analysis: Polity Answerkey CAPF

1. In CAPF 2013, they asked 14 out of 125 questions from Polity. (In 2012 they asked 17 question. so there is slight decline in the importance of this topic.)
2. only one question from polity current affairs (JS Verma). (In 2012 they asked two question from current).
3. UPSC breaks the sacred oath of not asking about ‘hot’ topics (e.g. Telengana was hot so State creation related MCQ asked, similarly Delhi Gangrape=>JS Verma)
4. Within Static->parliament related questions dominate.
5. all static question can be solved from Indian Polity by M.Laxmikanth

Polity internal breakup

Current	JS Verma	1
Static	parliament related	5
	(Parliament) budget making related	2
	Fundamental rights/DPSP	2
	council of ministers	1
	mother tongue	1
	tribunals	1
	creation of new State	1
total	14 out of 125 question. (or ~11% of the total paper)

Links to Answerkeys for CAPF-2013 exam

Polity	14	Covered in this article.
Geography+EnB+Agro	14+5+3	Click me
Economy+IR+PIN	21+4+2	to be released soon
Science	20	to be released soon
History	22	Released. Click me
Aptitude	20	to be released soon
total	125

Anyways, let’s solve. PS: Any corrections / additions: post them in the comments below.

Current

Q1. Which of the following recommendations of J. S. Verma Committee on crime against women was/were accepted by the Government by way of an ordinance?

1. Armed force personnel, who commit crime against women, could be tried under ordinary criminal law
2. There would be restriction of politicians facing sexual offence charges from contesting elections
3. Criminalization of marital rape
4. Question regarding moral character will not be put to the victim during cross-examination

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 2, 3 and 4
2. 2 and 4 only
3. 1 , 2 and 3
4. 4 only

let’s check

JS VERMA’S RECOMMENDATIONS	GOVERNMENT ORDINANCE
criminalization of marital rape	Government decided against it fearing that it could hamper chances of reconciliation.
There would be restriction of politicians facing sexual offence charges from contesting elections	rejected
Reviewing of the controversial section of the Armed Forces Special Powers Act (AFSPA) so that armed force personnel, who commit crime against women, could be tried under ordinary criminal law.	Government rejected the panel’s recommendation to amend the AFSPA where no sanction would be required if armed forces personnel were accused of committing a crime against women.

Since statement1, 2 and 3 rejected so eliminate options accordingly and we are left with answer (D) only 4.

Ref:

1. www.thehindu.com/news/national/ordinance-spares-police-armymen/article4373089.ece
2. http://www.ndtv.com/article/india/rape-law-ordinance-govt-rejects-js-verma-panel-s-recommendations-on-marital-rape-review-of-afspa-325492

Static/Theory

Creation of New state

1. The Parliament of India, may form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by unifying any territory to a part of any State. Which of the following procedures is /are true in this regard?

1. By a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process
2. On the recommendation of the President, who usually has to refer the bill to the legislature of the State(s) which is/are going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill
3. On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Laxmikanth Chapter on Union and its territory=>Topic: Parliament’s power to reorganize the states. Accordingly

Art.4: laws made for state reorganization are not amendment to the Constitution= meaning they can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process=>Statement 1 is correct

Art 3: lays down two conditions

1. bill can be introduced in parliament only by prior recommendation of President
2. President has to refer the same bill to the states concerned. =>Statement 2 is correct

Eliminate choices accordingly

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 only (Because doesn’t contain#1)
4. 1 and 3 only (because doesn’t contain #2)

Coming to statement #3: On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President.

It is true according to article 74= President shall act in accordance with the advice rendered by council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister. So President doesn’t start the ball rolling unless PM advices him to do so. Therefore number 3 also correct.

Hence the answer (B): 1, 2 and 3. OR Debatable A (if the examiner did not drag the logic of Art74).

Parliament related

1. A bill introduced in the Parliament, in order to become an Act, has to have which of the following procedures to be followed?

1. It is to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
2. The President has to give his/her assent.
3. The Prime Minister has to sign it after the ratification by the Parliament.
4. The Supreme Court has to approve and declare it to be within the jurisdiction of the Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 3 and 4 only

PM doesn’t have to sign it after ratification of parliament. Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Eliminate choices involving statement 3.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
4. 3 and 4 only

Thus answer is A: statement 1 and 2 only.

Q2. Which of the following are the privileges of the House of the People collectively?

1. The right to publish debates and proceedings, and the right to restrain publication by others
2. The right to exclude others—to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime
3. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges
4. What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however, can be inquired into in a court of law

Select the correct answer using the code given below,

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 3 and 4 only

Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament=>Topic: Parliamentary privileges=>Collective privileges

The right to publish debates and proceedings, and the right to restrain publication by others	44th Amendment 1978 restored the freedom of press to publish true reports of parliamentary proceedings without prior permission of the house. But this is not applicable in case of a secret sitting of the house.Meaning Statement #1 becomes debatable. (or correct with caveats.) but let’s move to next statement:
The right to exclude others—to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime	correct.additional source: http://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/rsat_work/chapter-8.pdfthis eliminates Answer D
The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges	correct. It can punish members as well as outsiders. Example in 1977 the 6th Lok Sabha expelled Indira from its membership and sentenced her to one week in jail for contempt of the house.This eliminates answer C.
What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however, can be inquired into in a court of law	Incorrect.additional source: http://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/rsat_work/chapter-8.pdf

Hence Answer is A: 1, 2 and 3.

Q3. Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker of the House of the People is/are correct?

1. The Speaker’s conduct in regulating the procedure of maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdiction of any court.
2. Besides presiding over his/her own House, the Speaker possesses certain powers like presiding over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament.
3. While a resolution for his/her removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall preside but shall have no right to speak, and shall have no right of vote.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament=>Topic: Speaker of Lok Sabha=>Election and tenure

“When a resolution for removal of speaker is under consideration, he cannot preside at the sitting of the house, though he may be present.”

• Hence statement 3 is wrong. This eliminates answer choice A and C.
• Statement 2 is correct because Speaker presides over the joint sitting of parliament.
• Answer B: statement 1 and 2 only.

Q4. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he

1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law
2. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court
3. remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 1 and 3 only

Approach A:
Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament=>Topic: Membership of Parliament. Accordingly all three statements are correct Hence answer C: 1, 2 and 3
Approach B:

Approach B:
According to Page 346 of Rajya Sabha manual:
http://rajyasabha.nic.in/rsnew/rsat_work/chapter-14.pdf
The constitutional provision is only directory and not mandatory; being and enabling power, it is within the competence of the House to condone the absence of a member exceeding sixty days.
But the question is using the word “shall” therefore, statement 3 is incorrect, hence answer=>(A) 1 and 2 only.
Final answer: Depends whether examiner went into nitpicking of the word ‘shall’ or not. So, wait for the official answer key from UPSC.

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding termination of sitting of a House

1. Only the House of the People is subject to dissolution.
2. The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
3. The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the People and the Council of States belongs to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively.
4. The Parliament cannot be dissolved as it is a permanent chamber.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Statement 1: Only the House of the People is subject to dissolution.	Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament=>Topic: sessions of parliament=>dissolution.This statement is Correct=> Answer B eliminated because it doesn’t contain statement1
Statement 3: The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the People and the Council of States belongs to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively.	Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament=>Topic: sessions of parliament=>Adjournment Sine Die.=> the power of adjournment and adjournment sine die rest with the presiding officers of the house. Meaning Statement #3 is correct.This eliminates Answer D because it doesn’t contain statement #3

so far

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Now comes the debatable part:

Statement 2: The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

True. But Not always true. For example, if council of ministers has lost majority then President is not bound to consider their advice for dissolving parliament. (Ref. Laxmikanth chapter on Council of Minister=>Collective responsibility.)

Answer: A or C depending on whether examiner consider the caveat of council losing majority.

Budget related

1. Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?

1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and the expenditure relating to his/her office
2. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People
3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament=>Topic: Budget in parliament =>Charged Expenditure.

All statements are correct. Hence answer B.

2. A bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it contains only provisions, dealing with

1. the imposition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. the regulation of the borrowing of money by the government
3. the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India
4. the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1 and 2 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Laxmikanth Chapter on Parliament=>Topic: legislative procedures in parliament=>Money bill.

According to the list given there, statement 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

And bills are not considered money bills by the reason only that it provides for

• the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties,
• demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered

Meaning statement 4 is incorrect. Hence answer is A: 1, 2 and 3 only

FR/DPSP related

Q1. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Offices connected with a religious or denominated institution may be reserved for members professing the particular religion to which the institution relates.
2. The State may reserve any post or appointment in favour of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under that State.
3. No citizen shall, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or any of them, be ineligible for any office under the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3
3. 1, 2 and 3
4. 3 only

Laxmikanth Chapter on Fundament rights=> topic: Equality of opportunity in public employment. According to the Art16 and the exceptions given to it, all three statements are correct. Hence answer C

Q2. Consider the following statements

1. While the Fundamental Rights constitute limitations on State action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to do certain things and to achieve certain goals by their actions.
2. The Directive Principles, however, require to be implemented by legislations and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive Principle, neither the State nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal rights under the colour of getting a Directive.
3. The Directive Principles are enforceable in the courts and create justiciable rights in favour of the individual.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 and 3 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 2 only

Laxmikanth Chapter Directive Principles of State policy=>Topic: Criticism of directive principles. Accordingly, statement 3 is incorrect. This eliminates answer A and B.

Same chapter, table 8.1 Distinction between Fundamental rights and directive principles=>Statement 1 is correct. This eliminates D. So we are left with answer C.

Language

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. It shall be the endeavor of every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in mother tongue at the primary state of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
2. The Constitution enjoins the Union of India to provide and promote the spread of Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression of all the elements of the composite culture of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Laxmikanth Chapter on Official language:

• Topic Protection of Linguistic minorities. Statement 1 is correct.
• Topic Development of Hindi language. Statement 2 is correct
• Therefore, answer (C) both correct.

Council of ministers

Q1. Consider the following statements:

1. A person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers.
2. Anyone can be appointed as a member of the Council of Ministers for a maximum period of three years.
3. A person shall not be less than 25 years of age in order to become a minister.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Laxmikanth Chapter on Council of Ministers=>Topic Appointment of minister.

• statement 1 is correct
• Statement 2 is wrong because person has to get elected within 6 months to either house.

this eliminates A and D.

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 1 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2 and 3 only

Regarding Statement #3: Minimum age to fight Lok Sabha election is 25 years. Hence statement number 3 is also legit. Although bit debatable:

1. What if the given person is 24 years and 10 months old –still gets appointed as minister and gets elected in Lok Sabha within the “6 months” timeframe?
2. What if the given person is only 21 years old- still gets appointed but resigns before expire of 6 months timeframe.

Answer B or C. Depending on whether examiner dragged the ‘birthday’ logic or not.

Tribunals

Q1. The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed

1. to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union
2. Members of the defense forces
3. Officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court in India

Choice:

1. 1 and 2
2. 1 only
3. 2 only
4. 2 and 3

Laxmikanth Chapter on Tribunals: Topic Central Administrative tribunal.

CAT’s jurisdiction doesn’t extent to defense forces, officers and servants of Supreme court and Secretarial staff of parliament. This eliminates

Eliminate choices involving statement 2 and 3. we are left with answer B: only 1.

Any corrections / additions: post them in the comments below. Answerkeys for remaining topics will be published soon.