1. Prologue
  2. Fundamental Rights and Duties
  3. Federalism
  4. Amendments to Constitution
  5. Judiciary: Supreme Court & HC
  6. Bodies: Statutory / Constitutional
  7. Defense related practice MCQs
    1. Defense → Institutions
    2. Defense → Military Exercises
    3. Defense → Mahila Shasaktikaran

Prologue

  • Time Limit: 30 minutes. 2 Marks for correct answer; -0.66 marks for wrong answers.
  • Mitron, my [T25] series contains 25 Mock MCQ sets primarily aimed at UPSC IAS/IPS Civil Service exam aspirants.
  • I usually don’t give direct answers below the MCQs but indirect hints. Because, then you’ve read the MCQ again & apply logical reasoning skills. This will improve your mental faculties compared to a scenario where direct answers are spoon-fed.
  • This 45th set contains Polity and Defense from UPSC’s CISF, Geologist and CDS exams conducted in 2020.
  • धीरे धीरे करते हुए, so far I’ve done 45 sets x 25 questions each = 1125 MCQs और पता भी नहीं चला!
  • Given the fact that UPSC Prelims even asks contemporary topics even from 2-3 years preceding the exam, so you should go through all of them available at Mrunal.org/Prelims
  • Majority of these MCQs can be solved from

Fundamental Rights and Duties

Q. Which of the following best describes a remedy where a person can be commanded to perform some public duty which s/he has refused to perform? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. Mandamus
  2. Prohibition
  3. Certiorari
  4. Quo Warranto

HINT:

Writ Meaning
Habeas Corpus When someone is illegally confined, Judge can use the writ of Habeas corpus to ensure the release of person. E.g. in movie Gangajal, girl Apoorva by Sundar Yadav.
Mandamus It literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. E.g. in the movie Gangajal, DSP Bhoore Lal who doesn’t do a single paisaa worth of work to justify his salary.
Prohibition it means ‘to forbid’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess.
Certiorari It means ‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’. It is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal either to transfer a case.
Quo-Warranto It means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office.

Q. Persons belonging to the third gender category cannot be discriminated against by the State and its institutions. Which Articles of the Constitution support this interpretation by the Supreme Court ? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. Articles 14 and 19
  2. Articles 16 and 21
  3. Articles 14 and 21
  4. Articles 19 and 32

HINT:

  • Article 14- Equality before law and equal protection of laws.
  • Article 16- Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
  • Article 19- Protection of six rights regarding freedom of: (i) speech and expression, (ii)  assembly, (iii) association, (iv) movement, (v) residence  (vi) profession
  • Article 21- Protection of life and personal liberty.
  • Article 32- person can move to SC for protection of fundamental rights.
  • Depending on how you interpret it, you may feel conflicted among option A, B and C. But in the opening lines of SC judgement on this matter, it’s written “t non-recognition of their gender identity violates Articles 14 and 21 of the Constitution of India.” So, it appears examiner lifted it verbatim from there.

Q. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty of the Indian citizens ? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. To respect the National flag and the National anthem
  2. To defend the country
  3. To provide opportunities for education to one’s own child between the age of six and fourteen years
  4. To safeguard all property

Answer Codes

  1. only 1 and 2
  2. only 3 and 4
  3. only 1 and 2 and 3
  4. only 4

HINT:

Fundamental duties-

  1. Abide by the Constitution + respect National Flag and the National Anthem;
  2. Cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired the national struggle for freedom;
  3. Uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
  4. Defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so;
  5. Promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood + renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women;
  6. Preserve the rich heritage + culture;
  7. Protect and improve the natural environment.
  8. Develop scientific temper
  9. Safeguard public property
  10. Provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Rights → Women

Q. Under the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961, any agreement for giving or taking dowry shall be (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. voidable at the behest of the bride.
  2. void  (अमान्य ठहराना).
  3. valid only to the extent that it is beneficial to the bride.
  4. valid only if executed within 3 months of the marriage.

HINT:
Under THE DOWRY PROHIBITION ACT, 1961:

  • Dowry’ means any property or valuable security given or agreed to be given either directly or indirectly for marriage.
  • If any person gives or takes or helps in giving or taking of dowry, he shall be punished  for not be less than five years + fine.
  • Any agreement for the giving or taking of dowry shall be void.

Q. Which one of the following is not punishable under the Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. Abetment of Sati
  2. Commission of Sati
  3. Attempt to commit Sati
  4. Glorification of Sati

HINT:

  • Sati means burning or burying alive of widow(s) along with dead husband;
  • Glorification means observance of any ceremony, taking out of a procession supporting, justifying or propagating sati practice. This is punishable upto 7 years.
  • Attempt to commit sati.-whoever attempts to commit sati and does any act towards such commission shall be punishable upto 1 year jail + fine.
  • Abetment of sati: shall be punishable with lifetime jail / death + fine.
  • Vaguely worded. Because the examiner seems to have copied just text headings under ‘Punishment section’ of the bare act. So, A, C and D headers, specific punishment is mentioned. So, ‘B’ has to be the answer. But when reading the punishments carefully, even ‘commission of sati’ is mentioned under ‘Attempt to commit sati’. (In that casel, all options are wrong, and therefore the question itself is poorly worded.)

Q. For the purpose of the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, a ‘child’ means a person who has not completed the age of: (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. 14 years
  2. 16 years
  3. 18 years
  4. 21 years

HINT:

  • This is also lifted from bare act. 
  • “Child” means a person who has not completed the age of sixteen years
  • “Minor” means a person who has completed the age of sixteen years but has not completed the age of eighteen years;
  • Sidenote: There is a proposal for amendment in this act, that is- “Child” means a person under the age of eighteen years. But here question is from original act.

Rights Issues: SC/ST & others

Q. Under the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, which one of the following is not permitted?  (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. Anticipatory Bail
  2. Registration of FIR without preliminary enquiry
  3. Arrest of an accused by the Investigating Officer without prior approval
  4. Bail

HINT:

  • In 2018, Government amended SC/ST Atrocities Act to clearly say that there would be no provision of anticipatory bail. Ref: news article
  • So, vaguely worded, examiner should have specifically mentioned “after amendment”

Q. The National Human Rights Commission conducts inquines into incidents where human rights have been violated. Such inquiry shall be initiated by the Commission (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. only upon a petition presented to it by a victim.
  2. only when it is directed to do so by Court.
  3. suo moto or on a petition by the victim or any person on the victim’s behalf or on a direction or order of any Court.
  4. only when such complaint is forwarded by the concerned SHO.

HINT:

The National Human Rights Commission is a statutory (and not a constitutional) body. It was established in 1993 under a legislation enacted by the Parliament, namely, the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Its functions include:

  • Inquire into any violation of human rights or negligence in the prevention of such violation by a public servant / suo motu or on a petition presented to it or on an order of a Court.
  • To visit jails and detention places.
  • To review the constitutional and other legal safeguards for the protection of human rights and recommend measures for their effective implementation.
  • Review the factors including acts of terrorism that inhibit the enjoyment of human rights and recommend remedial measures.
  • Study treaties and other international instruments on human rights and make recommendations for their effective implementation.
  • Undertake and promote research in the field of human rights.
  • Spread human rights literacy among the people and promote awareness of the safeguards available for the protection of these rights.
  • Encourage the efforts of nongovernmental organisations (NGOs) working in the field of human rights.
  • Undertake such other functions as it may consider necessary for the promotion of human rights.

Q. Under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the term ‘Human Rights’ , has been defined as:(UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. basic rights to food, shelter and clothing.
  2. inalienable rights of a human being.
  3. the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution of India.
  4. the rights ensuring liberty, equality, fraternity and state sovereignty.

HINT:

  • Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993: defines human rights as the rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the international covenants and enforceable by courts in India.

Federalism

Q. Which of the following Commissions was set up to recommend changes in the Centre-State relations?

  1. Verma Commission
  2. U.C. Banerjee Commission
  3. Kothari Commission
  4. Sarkaria Commission

HINT:

COMMISSION SUBJECT MATTER
Verma Commission, 2013   For quicker trial and enhanced punishment for criminals accused of committing sexual assault against women, after December 2012’s Nirbhaya gangrape.
U.C. Banerjee Commission  On Godhara riots.
Kothari Commission On education policy
Sarkaria Commission, 1983 Centre state relation.

Q. Which one of the following is a correct description of the Indian Federal System ? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. Dual citizenship
  2. States have equal representation in the Council of States
  3. Persons belonging to the all India services can be dismissed or removed by the States
  4. Unlike in the USA, there is no dual system of courts

Answer Codes

  1. only 1 and 2
  2. only 3 and 4
  3. only 1 and 2 and 3
  4. only 4

HINT:

  • India has no dual citizenship, not even in Kashmir after removal of Article 370
  • In Rajya Sabha  (Council of States) Maharashtra has 19 seat quota, whereas Arunachal Pradesh & a few other NE states have barely 1-1 seat each.
  • Persons belonging to the all India services (IAS/IPS/Indian Forest Service) can be removed only by the President of India.
  • The Indian Constitution has established an integrated judicial system with the Supreme Court at the top and the state high courts below it. This single system of courts enforces both the Central laws as well as the state laws. In US-  there is a double system of courts whereby the federal laws are enforced by the federal judiciary and the state laws by the state judiciary.
  • Now go by elimination method.

Amendments to Constitution

Q. Arrange the following chronologically :(UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. 44th Amendment Act
  2. Minerva Mills Case
  3. Amendment to Preamble
  4. Kesavananda Bharati Case

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 4-3-1-2
  2. 4-3-2-1
  3. 3-4-1-2
  4. 2-4-3-1

HINT:

1978 44th Amendment act: Right to property was made a legal right
1980 Minerva Mills Case Supreme Court held that ‘the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles.
1976 Amendment to Preamble: 42nd Constitutional Amendment act.- Socialist, Secular and integrity.
1973 Kesavananda Bharati Case: Supreme Court ruled that the constituent power of Parliament under Article 368 does not enable it to alter the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution.

Arrange chronology accordingly.

Q. Which one of the following does not describe the procedure or substance of the amendments to the Indian Constitution ? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. The Bill to amend the Constitution has to be laid in any House of the Union Parliament.
  2. The basic features of the Constitution cannot be amended.
  3. In the event of a deadlock between the two Houses of the Parliament, there is no provision for a joint session.
  4. The President cannot veto a Bill for the amendment of the Constitution.

HINT:

Procedure for constitutional amendment process:-

  • Process can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
  • Does not require prior permission of the President.
  • Must be passed in each House by a special majority i.e.  majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
  • Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
  • If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
  • The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill.
  • Eliminate accordingly.

Judiciary

Q. Which of the following is an incorrect procedure to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. A motion addressed to the President signed by at least 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or the Chairman.
  2. The motion is to be taken up for investigation by a Committee comprising 2 Judges of the Supreme Court and a distinguished jurist.
  3. The motion is put to vote irrespective of the outcome of the Committee’s Report.
  4. The motion needs to be passed by each House by majority of the total membership of that House and two-thirds of the members present and voting.

Answer Codes

  1. only 1 and 2
  2. only 3
  3. only 1 and 2 and 4
  4. None of the given statements

HINT:

Judges Enquiry Act (1968) procedure-

  1. A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/ Chairman.
  2. The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it.
  3. If it is admitted, then the Speaker/ Chairman is to constitute a three-member committee to investigate the charges.
  4. The committee should consist of (a) the chief justice or a judge of the Supreme Court, (b) a chief justice of a high court, and (c) a distinguished jurist
  5. If the committee finds the judge to be guilty of misbehaviour or suffering from an incapacity, the House can take up the consideration of the motion.
  6. After the motion is passed by each House of Parliament by special majority, an address is presented to the president for removal of the judge.
  7. Finally, the president passes an order removing the judge.

Eliminate wrong options accordingly.

Bodies

Q. Which one of the following is not a duty of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India ? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India of each State and Union Territory that has a Legislative Assembly
  2. To audit and report on all expenditure from the Contingency Funds and Public Accounts of the Union and the States
  3. To audit and report on all trading, manufacturing, and profit and loss accounts kept by any Department and/or private enterprises
  4. To audit and report on the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Union or State revenues.

Answer Codes

  1. only 1 and 2
  2. only 3
  3. only 1 and 2 and 4
  4. All four

HINT:

  • CAG  audits the accounts related to all expenditure from the Consolidated Fund, Contingency Fund, Public Account of union as well as States.
  • Audits all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss accounts, balance sheets and other subsidiary accounts kept by any department of the Central Government and state
  • governments.
  • Audits the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Central or state revenues;
  • Government companies, and corporations, when so required by related laws.
  • Audits the accounts of any other authority when requested by the President or Governor.
  • Eliminate accordingly and read option sentences ‘fully’.

Ma Gridhah Kasyasvidhanam is the motto of Lokpal

Q. (मा गृधः कस्यस्विद्धनम्) Ma Gridhah Kasyasvidhanam is the motto of:(UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. Lokpal
  2. Election Commission of India
  3. Central Electricity Regulatory Commission
  4. Central Information Commission

HINT:

  • Motto ‘Ma Gridhah Kasyasvidhanam’ meaning – Do not be greedy for anyone’s wealth is mentioned on Lokpal website.
  • Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act was passed in 2013.
  • Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose as the first head of the Lokpal.
  • Justice AK Tripathi (retired) member of the Lokpal, passed away due to the novel coronavirus.
  • Hence the correct option is (A).

Q. Findings of which one of the following Judicial Commissions paved the way for creation of the CISF? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. B. Mukherjee Commission
  2. Shah Commission of Enquiry
  3. Nanavati Commission
  4. Sarkaria Commission

HINT:

  • 1977: Shah Commission of Enquiry against all the excesses committed by Indira Gandhi’s Emergency.
  • 1983: Sarkaria Commission: state-centre relation.
  • 2002: Nanavati Commission on Godhara riots
  • Then whatever is left by elimination, should be the answer.

Defense related practice MCQs

Following questions are more important for CDS,CAPF and CISF Exams, and less important for IAS exam<

Defense → Institutions

Q. Which one of the following is the oldest Para Military Force in India? (UPSC-Geologist-2020)

  1. Central Reserve Police Force
  2. Assam Rifles
  3. Indo Tibetan Border Police
  4. Border Security Force

HINT:

Year Force
1939 Central Reserve Police Force  to assist the State Police or Union Territory Police.
1835 Assam Rifles to monitor the North East international borders.
1962 Indo Tibetan Border Police to monitor the borders and also stop smuggling and illegal immigration.
1965 Border Security Force to watch over international borders against intrusion.

Q. The Vijaynagar Advanced Landing Ground of the Indian Air Force, which was reopened recently, is located in (UPSC-CDS-i-2020)

  1. Jammu and Kashmir
  2. Arunachal Pradesh
  3. Karnataka
  4. Himachal Pradesh

HINT:

  • 2019-Sept: IAF reopened Advanced Landing Ground (ALG) in Arunachal Pradesh.
  • The ALG is important for ensuring quick mobilisation of troops and sending supplies to the Line of Actual Control (LAC) with China.

Defense → Military Exercises

Q. ‘Surya Kiran’ is a joint military exercise between the militaries of India and:(UPSC-Geologist-2020)

  1. Bangladesh
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Nepal
  4. Bhutan

HINT:

  • 2019-Dec: SURYA KIRAN – XIV between India and Nepal was conducted in Nepal.

Q. Which one of the following was the main theme of Defcom India 2019? (UPSC-CISF-2020)

  1. Information and Communication Technology for improved communication support to forward edges of tactical battle area
  2. Communication as a decisive catalyst for jointness
  3. Digital army infrastructure and skilled human resource
  4. Technology as a key enabler to overcome military challenges

HINT:

  • DEFCOM INDIA 2019 seminar commenced at Manekshaw Centre, New Delhi in November 2019.
  • The theme for the seminar was “Communications: A Decisive Catalyst for Jointness”.

Q. What was the code name given to the first ever tri-service military exercise between India and USA? (UPSC-CDS-i-2020)

  1. Lion Triumph
  2. Elephant Triumph
  3. Tiger Triumph
  4. Bison Triumph

HINT:

  • 2019-Nov: United States and India –  first-ever tri-service military exercise -“Tiger Triumph” @ Visakhapatnam.
  • Ref: Newindianexpress Article

Q. The maiden trilateral naval exercise involving India, Singapore and Thailand was held at (UPSC-CDS-i-2020)

  1. Port Blair
  2. Chennai
  3. Panaji
  4. Kochi

HINT:

  • 2019-Sept: Maiden trilateral exercise, involving Republic of Singapore Navy, Royal Thailand Navy and Indian Navy –  at Port Blair.
  • Purpose- bolstering the maritime inter-relationships among Singapore, Thailand and India + enhancing the overall maritime security in the region. 
  • Hence the correct option is A.

Defense → Mahila Shasaktikaran

Q. Who is sub-lieutenant Shivangi ? (UPSC-Geologist-2020)

  1. First woman officer to receive Sena Medal
  2. First woman officer to be deployed at Nathu La Pass as Signals in-charge
  3. First woman pilot of Indian Navy
  4. First woman officer from the Indian Air Force to summit the Mount Everest

HINT:

  • 2019-Dec: Sub Lieutenant Shivangi became the first woman pilot in the Indian Navy.

Q. Who among the following became the first woman officer of the Indian Air Force to be appointed as the Flight Commander of a flying unit? (UPSC-Geologist-2020)

  1. Shaliza Dhami
  2. Bhawana Kanth
  3. Anuradha Shukla
  4. Nivedita Choudhary

HINT:

  • 2019-Aug: Indian Air Force’s Wing Commander S Dhami has become the first female officer in the country to become the Flight Commander of a flying unit.
  • Hence the correct option is A.

Visit Mrunal.org/prelims for Previous Rounds of [T25] Mock MCQ Question / Answers.