[AnswerKey] UPSC Prelims-2020: Polity & International Relations (IR) MCQs Solved with Explanation along with Faaltu-ki Controversies over debatable MCQs

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Unacademy Plus Mrunal Economy for Prelims and Mains UPSC!
  1. Polity in UPSC Prelims-2020 Compared to previous papers
  2. Polity Strategy / Roadmap for UPSC Prelims & Mains 2021
    1. Polity: Theory- How to prepare
    2. Polity Contemporary Issues (2 Years & older)
    3. Polity Current Affairs (last 1 year, D-1)
    4. Polity for Mains-2021 General Studies Paper-2 (GSM2)
  3. UPSC IAS/IPS Prelims-2019 Answerkey: Polity & IR
    1. Polity: Preamble, FR, FD related MCQs in Prelims-2020
    2. DPSP related MCQs in Prelims-2020
    3. Amendment to the Constitution related MCQs in Prelims-2020
    4. Parliament / Legislature related MCQs
    5. Polity: Contemporary Issues related MCQs in Prelims-2020
    6. Polity: Abstract / Political Science Type MCQs
  4. International relations  (IR) in Prelims-2020
    1. IR Strategy for UPSC Prelims & Mains 2021
    2. IR/Defense (3 MCQs)
  5. Answerkey Assistance provided by Mudit Gupta

Polity in UPSC Prelims-2020 Compared to previous papers

UPSC Prelims 2020: Polity answerkey analysis by Mrunal Patel

Current= last one year before Exam. Contemporary = older than 1 year.

Polity MCQs in 2019 and before Polity MCQs in 2020’s Prelim GS Paper
2018: asked multi-statement MCQ about Aadhaar Card – 2020 again asked about Aadhaar Card
Some questions are outside the routine Constitution

1. 2017: What does the NGO ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ do?

2. 2020: objective of land reforms

– Thankfully, no such random lunacy. Yes they ask tough questions from NALSA And RPA , but at least the ‘heading’ of those topics is known to all serious aspirant
Trend of asking at least two questions, abstract/political science type e.g.

2017: what are the superior virtues of democracy.

2017: What are the implications of inequality

2018: Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

2018: Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law”

2018: relationship between laws and liberty

2019: meaning of liberty

Trend continues with abstract/political science type questions from

– primary objective of bureaucracy?

– Meaning of Constitutional government?

– Etc.

Although, in all these years 2017, 2018, 2019 and 2020- these question can be solved from NCERT-NIOS. So, it’s not like Political science Optional subject give send extra edge to those students. You should not opt for optional subject for 2020 with such short-sightedness or false-marketing.

– 2018: International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 related to _ _ _. – Asked about human rights Convention & Indian Constitution
– 2013: asked about NALSA (free legal aid) – 2020: again asked
– 2017: Good number of questions from Preamble to DPSP block – Again scene similar to 2017 is repeating
– Each year, a few questions from the Parliament and President. (However, 2019, had been a unique year as very less number of questions from this part) – Prem Continued
– In some years they have a very tough questions from Lok Sabha rulebook, state legislature rulebook, which are not available in the routine preparation sources (2018, 2019). – Thankfully that lunacy not repeated.
– Every year, at least one or two questions will be debatable subject to multiple interpretations and multiple answers

– (2017) right to vote

– (2019) will state legislatures follow the rules of Lok Sabha?

– Similar scene, with a few MCQs where private coaching institutes’ answerkeys are not unanimous.
– 2017: For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by _ _ _ .

– 2019: office of profit and disqualification

– 2020: minister eligibility & RPA asked.
– 2019: judicial review and 44th Amendment – 2020: basic structure of Constitution and judicial review
– 2018 Congress tried to get the then CJI Dipak Misra impeached. 2019-Prelims UPSC asks about impeachment of Judges! – Did not ask about any negative-news questions (unless you count the representation of People’s act)
    UPSC Prelims-2020: Polity answerkey MEME

  • Overall nature of the polity questions= Majority of them are factual-theory based questions whereas some of them require analysis and 50-50 elimination strategy. But nothing extraordinary “trend-breaker” under the sun. पुराने 5 साल के पेपर उठाकर देख लो यही तमाशा चल रहा था. इसमें कुछ नया या आश्चर्यजनक नहीं है.
  • For the sake of getting page views. Some people are creating excessive amount controversy about some debatable question, whereas even that is not new under the sun. Because every year, one or two questions are of ‘debatable’ nature.

Polity Strategy / Roadmap for UPSC Prelims & Mains 2021

Polity for Mains-2021 General Studies Paper-2 (GSM2)

Topic wise mains papers along with the strategy for Mains = given in the separate article, click me

UPSC IAS/IPS Prelims-2019 Answerkey: Polity & IR

Anyways, enough of strategy, let’s now solve the Polity MCQs asked in Prelims-2020

Polity: Preamble, FR, FD related MCQs in Prelims-2020

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.26. The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

[a) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect

[b) Not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either

[c) A part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part

[d) A part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Analytical (Even though, the individual facts are given in the book but solving this question requires connection between those individual points and cannot be solved verbatim, per se)

Explanation:

case judgement
A.K. Gopalan vs State of Madras (1950) Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not enforceable in a court of law.
Berubari Union (19600 Supreme Court ruled that Preamble is not a part of the Indian Constitution however, it helps in interpretation of the clauses of the Constitution.
Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) Supreme Court ruled that the Preamble is a part of the Indian Constitution.

  • The combined effect of the 3 judgments has been that even though the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, but it is not enforceable in a court of law.

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 4: Preamble of the Constitution. Sub-topics: Preamble as a Part of the Constitution (Page 4.5)

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.34. Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

[a) Right against Exploitation

[b) Right to freedom

[c) Right to constitutional remedies

[d) Right to equality

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

Right Against Exploitation Article 23: Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour

Article 24: Prohibition of employment of children in factories, etc.

Right to Freedom

Article 19: Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech, etc.

Article 20: Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Article 21: Protection of life and personal liberty

Article 21A: Right to education

Article 22: Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases

Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32)
Right to Equality

Article 14: Equality before law

Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth

Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment

Article 17: Abolition of untouchability

Article 18: Abolition of titles

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 7: Fundamental Rights → Fundamental Rights at a Glance (Table 7.1, Page 7.3)

DPSP related MCQs in Prelims-2020

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.35. In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

[a) The Preamble of the Constitution

[b) A Directive Principle of state policy

[c) The Seventh schedule

[d) The conventional practice

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

  • Not written in Preamble so A is wrong.
  • 7th Sch deals with separation of legislative powers between Union vs State so C is wrong.
  • Article 36 to Article 51 of our Constitution deal with Directive Principles of the State Policy. Within that Article 50 deals prescribes Separation of judiciary from executive. So, B is right.

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 8: Directive Principles of the State Policy → Sub-topics: Classification of Directive Principles (Page 8.2, 8.3)

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.38. Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[a) 1 and 2 only

[b) 2 only

[c) 1 and 3 only

[d) 1, 2 and 3

Difficulty : Easy 🤩 through word associations. Fundamental duties talk about protecting dignity of women, duty to educate children etc. #3 is right, & DPSP Definitely talks about many human rights so, Answer should be D.

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Analytical (Even though, the Preamble to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights is given in the NCERT, it needs to be understood comprehensively to attempt this question. Verbatim answer is not available in the NCERT)

Explanation:

  • Preamble to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about dignity of an individual. Preamble of Indian Constitution speaks about “EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity” → #1 is correct.
  • Article 23 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about the Right to Work. Similar concept in Article 41 of the Indian Constitution, under the head of DPSPs.
  • Article 29 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights mentions about duties. A similar concept that was inserted in the Indian Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 under Part IV-A of the Constitution (Article 51A).

Source:

  • Class XI NCERT: Political Theory : Chapter 5: Rights (Page 77)

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.22. Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare state?

[a) Directive principles of state policy

[b) Fundamental rights

[c) Preamble

[d) Seventh schedule

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

  • Directive principles of state policy are given in the Part IV of the Indian Constitution (Article 36 to 51).
  • Article 38 mentioned about State to secure a social order for the promotion of welfare of the people.

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 8: Directive Principles of the State Policy: Sub-topics – Features of the Directive Principles (Page 8.1)

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.28. With reference to the provisions contained in part IV of the constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. They shall be enforceable by courts
  2. They shall not be enforceable by any court
  3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state

Select the correct answer using the code given below

[a) 1 only

[b) 2 only

[c) 1 and 3 only

[d) 2 and 3 only

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

  • Part-IV of the Indian Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of the State Policy (Article 36 to Article 51)
  • Article 37: Provisions of Part-IV shall not be enforceable by any court (Hence, 2nd statement is correct) We are 🤞50:50 between C or D.
  • Article 37 of the Indian Constitution also states that it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws as they are fundamental in the governance of the country. So, #3 is correct. So, by elimination, the answer is D.

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 8: Directive Principles of State Policy: Sub-topics- Features of the Directive Principles (Page 8.1)

Amendment to the Constitution related MCQs in Prelims-2020

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.23. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
  2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[a) 1 only

[b) 2 only

[c) Both 1 and 2

[d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Medium 🧐

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Analytical (Even though the facts are given in the book by M. Laxmikanth, they need to be analyzed and put together to reach a conclusion)

Explanation:

  • Constitution of India does not define the term ‘basic structure’. It is a judicial tool that was invented by the Supreme Court of India in the Keshavananda Bharti vs State of Kerala (1973) landmark judgment.
  • Even though, the Supreme Court invented the concept of Basic Structure in the aforementioned judgment, it did not define the same. However, it is only in the later judgments that the court has added various elements to the list of the basic structure of the Constitution. So, 1st statement is incorrect. We are 🤞50:50 between B or D.
  • While Article 13 of the Indian Constitution deals with the ‘CONCEPT’ of Judicial Review however, it does not explicitly mentions the term judicial review. But assuming that question is asking in general sense, the answer should be “B”: Only 2nd statement correct.

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 11: Basic Structure of the Constitution, Chapter 27: Judicial Review

Parliament / Legislature related MCQs

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.30. Consider the following statements:

  1. The president of India can summon a session of Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
  2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions
  3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[a) 1 only

[b) 2 only

[c) 1 and 3 only

[d) 2 and 3 only

Difficulty : Medium 🧐

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

  • Article 85(1): President to summon each house of the Parliament at such time and place as he thinks fit. (Hence, 1st statement is correct) We are 🤞50:50 between A or C. Now everything boils down to the validity of statement 3.
Statement#3 is right Counter view: Statement#3 is wrong
If the UPSC interprets it in a narrow and literal sense, then exact number of days for which the Parliament is supposed to meet in a year is not mentioned in the Constitution

hence, 3rd statement is correct.

If we interpret the question in a broader manner, then Article 85 of the Indian Constitution mentions that 6 months shall not intervene the 2 sessions of the Parliament.

Interpreting this clause, it essentially means that Parliament has to meet at least for 2 days in a year to prevent the violation of Article 85.

In such a scenario, 3rd statement is incorrect.

Whenever UPSC examiner wants to make a statement correct. He will go for extreme worded statements, third statement contains extreme word “no minimum number of days”, and therefore it should be wrong as per Guessmastergiri Rule#1

Final judge: we have to wait for the official answer key of UPSC next year.

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 22: Parliament: Sub-topics Sessions of the Parliament (Page 22.13)

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.32. Rajyasabha has equal powers with Loksabha in _ _ _ .

[a) The matter of creating new all India services

[b) Amending the Constitution

[c) The removal of the government

[d) Making cut motions

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

  • Article 312: With regards to the creation of All India Services, Rajya Sabha has special powers such that if Rajya Sabha is passing a resolution by a majority of 2/3rd of the members present and voting, Parliament may, by law, create one or more All India Services in national interest. → A is wrong.
  • Article 75(3) hold the government collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. Hence, in this regards, Lok Sabha has greater power as compared to Rajya Sabha. → C is wrong.
  • Cut Motions, which are meant to reduce the amount allocated to the ministries in the demand for grants, can be made only in Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha can only make recommendations with regards to the cut motion. → D is wrong.
    Article 368 of the Indian Constitution, a bill to amend the Constitution can be introduced in either house of the Parliament and both the houses have equal powers in respect to the Constitutional Amendment Bill. → B is right.
  • Source: LX: ch.22 Parliament Subtopics
    • Position of Rajya Sabha (Page 22.33, 22.34, 22.35)
    • Voting on Demand for Grants (Page 22.28)

Polity: Contemporary Issues related MCQs in Prelims-2020

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.29. consider the following statements:

  1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of that state.
  2. According to the Representation of People Act,1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[a) 1 only

[b) 2 only

[c) Both 1 and 2

[d) Neither 1 nor 2

Difficulty : Tough 🥵 because RPA Act is a topic for the Mains general studies paper2, so most of the candidates do not prepare its salient features in great detail for prelims.

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation: (why two answers possible)

  • As per the Representation of People Act, 1951: if person jailed for not less than two years = shall be disqualified from the date of such conviction and shall continue to bedisqualified for a further period of six years since his release. There is no clause of “permanent disqualification”. It’s jailtime + 6 years after release. So, 2nd statement is incorrect. We are 🤞50:50 between A or D.

Statement one is correct or not?

According to some experts, #1 is right because

  • A citizen becomes eligible to vote upon attaining the age of 18.
  • Whereas to become a member of the Vidhan Sabha, he must be minimum 25 years old.
  • Article 164(4) of the Indian Constitution: A Minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.
  • So, accordingly, some experts interpret that even 18 or 19 year old person (Who is eligible to vote), can become minister for atleast 6 months. So#1 is right.

But, other experts differ, that “Since Constitution itself has not specifically said this, so statement#1 is wrong”, so answer is “D”.

  • Final judge: we’ve to wait for the official answerkey of UPSC

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 32: State Council of Ministers and Chapter 33: State Legislature

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.39. In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

  1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
  2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
  3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
  4. All Senior Citizens

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[a) 1 and 2 only

[b) 3 and 4 only

[c) 2 and 3 only

[d) 1 and 4 only

Difficulty : Tough 🥵 because difficult to recall income-limit information in exam.

Type: Contemporary 📅 because NALSA was setup under an Act of 1987.

Source: partially solvable from Laxmikanth.

Explanation:

  • Partially solvable from LX: Chapter 36: Subordinate Courts: Sub-topics- National Legal Services Authority (Page 36.3)
  • NALSA covers Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹ 1 lakh So, #1 is right. We are 🤞50:50 between A or D.
  • However, there is no mention about the senior citizens. (Besides, billionaires like Ratan Tata or Azim Prem-ji may not be covered by it, due to Government’s fiscal constrains). So, #4 “ALL senior citizens eligible” seems wrong.
  • Let’s check further: As per the official page of NALSA: senior citizens eligible depending on income. So, #4 wrong, so D wrong so by elimination, we are left with “A”.

🎲 GuessMaster-GiriTM: 🤙Partially Possible. If you believe in the rule#1 that extreme worded statements are always wrong → Then fourth statement should be wrong because they contain extreme words “All senior citizens”. So, by elimination we are 🤞50:50 between A or D.


(Pre’20-SetB) Q.31. Consider the following statements:

  1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months
  2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data
  3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
  4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidate fund of India.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

[a) 1 and 4 only

[b) 2 and 4 only

[c) 3 only

[d) 1,2 and 3 only

Difficulty : Tough 🥵. Not easily available in the routine preparation sources

Type: Contemporary 📅

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

  • As per the Aadhar Act, 2016, read together with the Supreme Court Judgment of 2018, the Aadhar Metadata can be stored for a maximum period of 6 months.#1 wrong, we are We are 🤞50:50 between B or C.
  • In the 2018 judgment, Supreme Court held that Aadhar is not mandatory to purchase the insurance products however, it can be voluntarily used for KYC of the insurance products. Even IRDAI has made the similar rules. Hence, statement 3 is also incorrect.
  • Also, the Supreme Court ruled that any welfare scheme, driving funds out of the Consolidated Fund of India, would require Aadhar to deliver the benefits to the intended beneficiaries. (Hence, 4th Statement is correct)
  • Ref: theHinduBusinessLine article published in 2019

🎲 GuessMaster-GiriTM: 🤙Partially Possible. If you believe in the

  • Rule#1 that extreme worded statements are always wrong
  • Rule#2 that Dates, Years & figures are always wrong in statement.
  • Then first statement should be wrong because contains extreme words “can’t be stored for more than 3 months”.
  • So, by elimination we are 🤞50:50 between B or C.
  • Yes other statement #2, 3 and 4 also contain extreme words “must / can’t / mandatory” but this rule needs to be applied with some logic/knowledge as well. If tomorrow UPSC examiner frames a statement “child aged 1 year cannot vote in the election of President” → then it does not mean it is a wrong statement just because it contains extreme word “cannot” and number “1 year”!

Polity: Abstract / Political Science Type MCQs

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.37. A constitutional government by definition is a _ _ _ _ .

[a) government by legislature

[b) popular government

[c) Multi party government

[d) Limited government

Difficulty : Medium 🧐

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Analytical

Explanation:

Constitutional Government in Nation
UK/USA – Parliamentary supremacy so government by legislature. Option-A seems fitting

– But on the other hand, USA’s Presidential form of Government is not fitting this premise. So, Option-A is not fitting.

UAE They’ve Constitution but half of their MP are elected and half of the members appointed by the Royal families. So, “Popular Government” (=democratically election) is not fully fitting. Option-B is wrong.
China They’ve Constitution but no ‘multi-party system’. So, Option-C is wrong.
  • Hence, due to above contradictory “GLOBAL” examples, we can safely assume that the examiner is talking about the ‘INDIAN PERSPECTIVE ONLY’
  • The government in India comprises of the President of India along with his Union Council of Ministers. At the State Level, the government comprises of the Governor assisted by his State Council of Ministers. Even though, the President, the Union Council of Ministers and the State Council of Ministers are elected i.e. they form a popular element, the Governor is nominated by the President of India on the recommendation of the Union Council of Ministers. Hence, there is some element that deviates from the principle of popular government.
  • Also, in India there is no compulsion to form a multi-party government. There have been instances in the contemporary times wherein, single party has formed the government with a clear-cut majority.
  • Moreover, in India, there is no Parliamentary Supremacy. All the 3 organs of the democracy maintain a system of checks and balances.
  • Hence, in India, the constitutional government is a limited government. The powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part-III of the Indian Constitution, that are essentially given to us against the state actions.

Source:

  • No direct source. Proper understanding of the Fundamental Rights and the associated reasonable restrictions along with a proper reading of other parts of the Constitution

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.25. In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

[a) An agency widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

[b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

[c) An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth

[d) An agency for the implementation of public policy

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Analytical

Explanation:

  • UK is not a federal nation, yet they too have civil servants / bureaucracy. So, #B is not the most appropriate option.
  • While bureaucracy can help in economic growth through ease of doing business but “Political stability” is not their mandate. Political stability depends on strength in parliament / Vidhan Sabha. So, #C is not the most appropriate option.
  • We are 🤞50:50 between A or D.
  • NCERT political science Class11: Chapter 4: Executive- subtopic: PERMANENT EXECUTIVE: BUREAUCRACY: “It is always possible that a party is defeated in elections and the new government wants to opt for new policies in the place of policies of the previous government. In such a situation, it is the responsibility of the administrative machinery to faithfully and efficiently participate in drafting the policy and in its implementation.”
  • Therefore, “D” is mostly appropriate characteristic / function of bureaucracy.

Source:

  • NCERT political science Class11: Chapter 4: Executive

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.21. A parliamentary system of government is one in which

[a) All political parties in the parliament are represented in the government

[b) The government is responsible to the parliament and can be remove by it

[c) The government is elected by the people and can be removed by them

[d) The government is chosen by the parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Difficulty : Easy 🤩

Type: Theory 📚

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:

  • Article 75: The ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament in general and to the Lok Sabha in particular. The principle of collective responsibility implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed by the prime minister) from office by passing a vote of no confidence.
  • So, B is the right choice.

Source:

  • LX: Chapter 22: Parliament- Sub-topics: Multifunctional Role of Parliament: Executive Powers and Functions
    (Page 22.31)

International relations (IR) in Prelims-2020

IR MCQs in 2019 and before IR MCQs in 2020’s Prelim GS Paper
– 3 MCQs in 2019 same
– 2017- a question was asked about nuclear security summit

– 2019: India signed nuclear cooperation agreement with _ _ _ nation.

Asked about IAEA supervision over Indian nuclear plants
– 2019: ‘crazy’ Qs from low-profile organisations- UNCAC, UNTOC. – One such question from low-profile declarations like Alma-Ata Declaration.
– 2019: nothing from military / defense / missiles – Same
  • As such, not much to say about international relations and diplomacy MCQs in prelims 2020, because, hardly three questions are asked.
  • Of course they has good number of questions from international economy, import export, but that we have seen in the economy answer key separately. Click me!

IR Strategy for UPSC Prelims & Mains 2021

IR/Defense (3 MCQs)

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.40. Consider the following pairs:

  1. Alma-Ata Declaration: Healthcare of the people
  2. Hague Convention: Biological and chemical weapons
  3. Talanoa Dialogue: Global climate change
  4. Under2 Coalition: Child rights

Which of the pairs given above is/ are correctly matched?

[a) 1 and 2 only

[b) 4 only

[c) 1 and 3 only

[d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Difficulty : Tough 🥵 to memorise these many low-profile declarations.

Type: Contemporary 📅

Explanation:

Year Organisation Declaration Objective
1978 WHO Alma-Ata Declaration (Kazakhstan) Healthcare of the People. It was in news in 2018, because 40 years were completed.
1980 Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCH) Hague Convention, Netherlands International Child Abduction. Mainly related to custody of child after divorce of parents living in two different countries. It was in news during 2018 – 19, because India had not signed it.
2017 UNCCC Talanoa Dialogue to help countries with Nationally Determined Contributions in Paris climate change agreement
2015 Coalition of subnational governments (e.g. State Government of California, USA) Under2 Coalition Reduction of Greenhouse Gas Emission

Source:

  • Searched from online newspapers- mostly of 2018😰 (D-2)

(Pre’20-SetB) Q.75. In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20 ?

[a) Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey

[b) Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand

[c) Brazil, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam

[d) Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

Difficulty : Tough 🥵 because if you go by logical-elimination / guesswork that G20’s Osaka Summit (2019) was held in Japan so answer should be D= wrong answer.

Type: Contemporary 📅

Factual or Analytical: Factual

Explanation:


(Pre’20-SetB) Q.85. In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not ?

[a) Some use uranium and others use thorium

[b) Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies

[c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises

[d) Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned

Difficulty : Tough 🥵 While routine prep sources mention that Indian military reactors are outside IAEA’s scope but the specified information asked in above MCQ is not directly given in routine sources.

Type: Contemporary 📅

Explanation:

  • FDI is prohibited in atomic energy in India. So, option #C is wrong.
  • NCERT class XI economy: chapter 3 LPG an appraisal: “The only industries which are now reserved for the public sector are defense equipment, atomic energy generation and railway transport.” So, option #D is wrong.
    • [Of course, in the later years, government has permitted the entry of private sector in the defense production as well as railway transportation, but still in atomic energy private participation is not allowed.]
    • Presently two Central Public Sector Enterprises viz. Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL) and Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited (BHAVINI) are involved in nuclear power generation
  • So, now We are 🤞50:50 between A or B. Now, As per 2019’s Economic Times Article:
    • As per the India-US Civilian Nuclear Deal (2005), India can maintain 2-types of nuclear reactors. Certain reactors, in which we are using the domestic fuel, India can keep them outside the purview of IAEA.
    • However, the reactors in which we are using imported fuel, they will be mandatorily under the IAEA inspection.
    • There are at present 22 operational reactors, of which 14 are under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards as these use imported fuel. Therefore option B is correct

Source:

  • Searched from online newspapers 😰

Answerkey Assistance provided by Mudit Gupta

Mudit Gupta Unacademy Educator
Mudit Gupta
Indian History Freedom Struggle Pratik Nayak

7 Comments on “[AnswerKey] UPSC Prelims-2020: Polity & International Relations (IR) MCQs Solved with Explanation along with Faaltu-ki Controversies over debatable MCQs”

  1. Q30. Statement 3, you have made it a csat question.How minimum no of days is two?Six months intervene which all months you are taking February has 28 days,March 31 days.Assume if parliament meets on July 30th this year,within six months means which date you are taking,two days parliament will meet,so within 6 months again parliament has to meet.You are saying it is for two days.All this should be in a year as per question.As per assumption by July 30th next year.

  2. For Parliament question its verbatim lifted from Indian express article I think
    So answer should be 1$3

  3. question related to basic structure is both options are correct because
    1. Every constitution has its own basic structure / features and here in India we also have same from 1950 jan 26
    2. SC just gave what constitutes the basic structure of our constitution in terms of successive judgement which in legal terms it is ” basic structure doctrine ”
    3. question clearly says ” constitution defines its basic structure in terms of ” which means our constitution has some fundamental principles / structure without which it looses its importance in governance of our country. So this is defined implicitly which SC made explicitly in its judgement
    5. question is not asking whether the constitution defines the term “basic structure” explicitly as 2019 office of profit question where they used the term “office of profit”

  4. question related to basic structure is both options are correct because
    1. Every constitution has its own basic structure / features and here in India we also have same from 1950 jan 26
    2. SC just gave what constitutes the basic structure of our constitution in terms of successive judgement which in legal terms it is ” basic structure doctrine “

  5. Q 37 on limited govt is from ncert’s chapter on Constitution.

    1. Aditya, can you share which NCERT and the corresponding page no. you are referring to? I searched in the NCERT XI (Indian Constitution at Work), but didn’t find anything similar.

  6. Sir,
    Strategy for 2021 mein “click me to expand” open nahi ho raha hai.

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